Flashcards in Chapter 6 Deck (201):
How many bones in the human skeleton?
What are the 5 functions of the skeletal system?
-supporting framework of the body (shape and alignment)
-protect the vital internal organs from injury
-plays an important role in movement by providing points of attachment for muscles, ligaments, & tendons
-serve as a reservoir for storing minerals (mostly calcium and phosphorus)
-the red bone marrow is responsible for blood cell formation
What is the process of blood cell formation called?
how are bones classified?
according to their shape
What are the different bone shapes?
Long, short, irregular, flat, or sesamoid
How do you distinguish long bones? What are some examples?
they are longer than they are wide
e.g. humerus*, radius*, ulna*, femur*, tibia*, fibula*, phalanges
How do distinguish short bones? What are some examples?
they are about as long as they are wide
e.g. carpals* and tarsals*
How do you distinguish flat bones? What are some examples?
they are brood and flat, and sometimes curved surface
e.g. breastbone, ribs, shoulder blade, and pelvis
How do you distinguish irregular bones? What are some examples?
they come in various sizes and are often clustered in groups
e.g. spinal column (vertebrae*) and the face
How do you distinguish sesamoid* bones? What are some examples?
unique, irregular bones embedded in the substance of tendons and usually located around a joint.
e.g. patella, metacarpophalangeal joints, and metatarsophalangeal joints
What is the medical specialty that deals with the prevention and correction of disorders of the musculoskeletal system?
What is the physician called that specializes in orthopedics?
What is the name of the health care profession that deals with the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of mechanical disorder of the musculoskeletal system? What is the name of the practitioner?
What is the long shaftlike portion of a long bone called? What are its characteristics?
diaphysis*; hollow, cylindrical shape shape and consists of thick compact bone
What is located at the each end of a long bone?
epiphysis* (bulblike shape that provides room for muscle attachment)
What separates the diaphysis* from the epiphysis*?
What is the epiphyseal line* made of?
What is the purpose of the epiphyseal line*?
allows the bone to lengthen; the cartilage multiplies during growth spurts; completely replaced by bone and disappears on X-ray when skeleton growth is complete
what is the fibrous membrane that covers the surface of the long bone except at joints?
What covers the epiphyses?
articular cartilage* (a thin layer of cartilage that covers the ends of the long bones and the surfaces of the joints)
What is the hard outer shell of the bone called?
What is covering the compact bone?
What is found in the center of the hollow cylinder of compact bone in a long bone?
the medullary cavity* (marrow cavity)
What does the medullary cavity* cavity consist of?
what is the name of compact bone's system of canals?
What do the haversian canals* consist of?
blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves
What is the name for spongy or trabecular bone?
What are trabeculae*? What are they filled with?
needlelike bony spicules that give the cancellous bone* its spongy appearance and give added strength to the bone; they are filled with red bone marrow
what happens in red bone marrow? Where is red bone marrow found in infants and adults?
cell production; in infants almost all the bones contain red bone marrow; in adults red bone marrow is found in ribs, the vertebrae*, the epiphysis of the humerus*, the femur*, the sternum, and the pelvis; red bone marrow places in children are replaced with yellow bone marrow
What does yellow marrow do?
stores fat and is not an active site for blood cell production in the adult
What are immature bone cells that actively produce the bony tissue called?
What is the conversion of the fibrous connective tissue and cartilage into bone or a bony substance called?
Where does bone grow in length?
the epiphyseal line*
How do bones grow in diameter? Who are the players? What occurs? What do osteoclasts* do?
through the combined action of the osteoblasts* and osteoclasts*; osteoclasts* digest, or absorb, bony tissue and the osteoblasts* create new.
Osteoclasts* help hollow out the central portion of the bone by eating away at the inner walls of the medullary cavity*.
What is the process of destroying old bone tissue so that it can be absorbed into the circulation?
Where do the osteoblasts live?
in the inner layer of the periosteum*
When do osteoblasts* become mature and what are they called then?
When the surrounding intercellular material hardens around them. they are then called osteocytes* (mature bone cells)
What do osteocytes* do?
They continue to maintain the bone without producing new bone.
What are bone depressions?
concave areas or openings in a bone
-help form joints
-serve as points of attachment for muscle
what are the specific features of individual bones called?
What characteristic features are included in bone markings?
enlargements that extend out from the bone and openings or hollow regions within the bone.
What is the purpose of bone markings?
-may serve as points of attachment for muscles and tendons
-join one bone to another
-provide cavities and passage for nerves and blood vessels
What are bone processes?
projections or outgrowths of bone
-they help form joints
-serve as points of attachment for muscles and tendons
What are the most common bone processes?
trochanter*, bone head, neck, tuberosity*, condyle*, crest, spine
or called bony skull, the cranium is the bony skull that envelops the brain
How many bones does the cranium consist of? Are they movable or immovable bones/joints?
What are the immovable joints of the cranium called?
What cranial bones are listed in the book?
the frontal bone, the parietal bone*, the temporal bone*, the occipital bone*, the sphenoid bone*, and the ethmoid bone*
How many parietal bones are there?
What is found within the occipital bone*?
the foramen* magnum
What is the foramen* magnum?
a large opening in the base through which the spinal cord passes
How many temporal bones are there? What do they contain? what do they project downward to form?
2; the middle and inner ear structures, mastoid sinuses; the mastoid process, which serves as a point of attachment for muscles
What shape is the sphenoid bone*? What does the sphenoid bone anchor?
Bat-shaped; the frontal, parietal*, occipital*, temporal*, and ethmoid* bones
What dos the ethmoid bone* contain?
the ethmoid sinuses
What are the spaces between the cranial bones in infants called?
fontanelle* or spelled fontanel*
What two facial bones give the skull its distinctive shape?
the maxillae (upper jaw bones) and the mandible (lower jaw bone)
How are facial bones connected?
all except for the mandible are connected by sutures*(immoveable joints)
What facial bones are listed with discussion in the book?
the mandibular* bone, the maxillary* bone, the zygomatic bones*, nasal bones, lacrimal bones*, vomer, palatine bones*, nasal conchae*
what is the mandibular bone*? What does it create with the temporal bone*?
or called mandible, i the lower jaw, largest and strongest face bone, only movable skull joint, contains sockets for teeth; the temporomandibular (TMJ) joint
How many maxillary* bones? What do they form? What do they contain?
2; fused midline by a suture and form the upper jaw and hard palate; the maxillary* sinuses and sockets for teeth
How many zygomatic bones*
2 one on each side of the face
what do the nasal bones join?
the frontal bone, the ethmoid bone*, and the maxillae
How many lacrimal bones*? What do they join and form?
2 (small and paper thin); join the cheek bones on each side to form the fossa* which houses the tear, lacrimal, duct
What does the vomer* form? What does the vomer* join with?
lower part of the nasal septum; the sphenoid, palatine, ethmoid, and maxillary bones
How many palatine bones*? What shape are they?
How many nasal conchae*?
2 (inferior for sure)
located just above the larynx and below the mandible; does not connect with any other bone to form a joint, its suspended by ligaments
What does the hyoid bone* serves as a point for?
attachment of the muscles of the tongue and throat
What forms the long axis of the body?
vertebral column or "backbone"
How many vertebrae* bones?
24 (plus the sacrum* and the coccyx*)
What is the function of the vertebral column? How many segments are there?
protect the spinal cord; five
What is the first segment of the vertebral column? What is the name of the first bone of this segment?
the cervical vertebrae*, C1-C7; "atlas"
vertebrae of the neck= (cervic/o=neck)
What is the second segment of the vertebral column?
the thoracic vertebrae*, T1-T12; connects with 12 pairs of ribs
vertebrae of the chest= (thorac/o=chest)
What is the third segment of the vertebral column?
The lumbar vertebrae*, L1-L5
vertebrae of lower back= (lumb/o=lower back, loins)
What is the fourth segment of the vertebral column? Fusion of?
the sacrum*, triangle, fusion of five individual sacral bones of the child
What is the fifth segment of the vertebral column?
coccyx, "tailbone"; fusion of four individual coccygeal* bones in the child
What is the body of each vertebrae called?
what separates each vertebral body in the spinal column?
what is the large opening in each vertebrae for the spinal cord called?
What is the posterior part of of the vertebra called?
what does the vertebral arch consist of?
a spinous process and a transverse process (serving as points of attachment for muscles)
What bones make up the thoracic cavity?
ribs, sternum, and thoracic vertebrae*
How many paris of ribs? Divided into how many categories?
12 pairs of ribs; divided into three categories-true ribs, false ribs, and floating ribs
What are the first seven pairs of ribs?
true ribs (1-7)-they attach to the sternum in the front and to the vertebrae* in the back
What are the second three pairs of ribs?
false ribs-(8-10); they connect in the back to the vertebrae but not with the sternum in the front, but attach to the cartilage of the rib above
What is the third pairs of ribs?
floating ribs (11-12); they attach to the vertebrae in the back, and are completely free of attachment in the front
What is found in the intercostal spaces?
blood vessels, nerves, and muscles
what is the breastbone?
the sternum, it is a flat bone
what is the upper end of the sternum called?
the manubrium, connects each clavicle
what is the lower part of the sternum called?
the name for the collar bone?
the name for the shoulder blade?
the name for the raised ridge of the scapula?
the name for the spoon-shaped projection of the scapula that connects with the clavicle?
Upper extremities listed
humerus*, radius*, ulna*, carpals*, metacarpals*, phalanges*
What is the name of the large projection on the ulna*?
how many carpal bones in each wrist?
what does metacarpal* mean?
"beyond the carpals", they join the carpals with the phalanges
what are the bones of the fingers called?
what is the bony structure that is formed by the hip bones?
What makes up the pelvic bones?
the pelvis, sacrum*, and coccyx*
What is the pelvic girdle?
bony ring framed by the hip bones, the sacrum, and the coccyx
What is the largest of the the three hip bones?
What is the upper curved edge of the illiim?
the iliac* crest
what is the lowest and strongest of the pelvic bones?
what is the projection on either side at the back of the pelvic outlet called?
the ischial* spine
what is the name of connection of the two pubic* bones?
What forms the acetabulum? what does serve as?
the ilium, ischium, and pubis form; serves as the connecting point for the femur and hip (hip joint)
What is the sacral foramen?
the small openings in the fused segments of the sacrum through which the sacral nerves pass
Bones of the lower extremities listed
femur*, patella*, tibia*, fibula*
What bone is the thigh bone?
femur* (longest, heaviest, and strongest bone in the body)
What are the names of the projections on the femur*?
The greater trochanter* and the lesser trochanter*
Why is does the greater trochanter significant?
it is a landmark when selecting the site for the ventrogluteal intramuscular injection
what is the name of the knee bone or kneecap?
what type of bone is the patella*?
a sesamoid* bone
which bone is the larger of the two lower leg bones?
tibia* (shin bone) (it is on the big toe side)
What is the downward projection, which is the bony prominence on the inner aspect of the ankle?
Which lower leg bone is the smaller one?
What does fibula* connect?
the lateral condyle* of the tibia*
What are the bones of the ankles called? How many are there in the ankles?
What is the largest tarsal*?
which tarsal joins the tibia* with the fibula*?
the talus bone
what are the bones of the feet called?
What are the bones of the toes called?
concave, indented area or openings in bones
specific features of individual bones
projections or outgrowths of bones
hard outer shell of the bone
distinct border or ridge, as in iliac* crest
rib pairs 8-10 which connect to the vertebrae in the back but not to the sternum in the front because they join the seventh rib in the front
bones that are broad
rib pairs 11-12, which connect tot he vertebrae in the back but are free of any attachment in the front
spaces between the ribs
bones that are longer than then they are wide and with distinctive shaped ends, such as the femur*.
red bone marrow
the soft, semifluid substance located in the small spaces of concellous bone* that is the source of blood cell production
bones that are about as long as they are wide and somewhat box-shaped, such as the wrist bone
a sharp projection from the surface of a bone, similar to a crest
an abnormal condition characterized by a narrowing or restriction of an opening or passageway in a body structure
sten/o=short, contracted, or narrow
located in the diaphysis of long bones, yellow marrow consists of fatty tissue and is inactive in the formation of blood cells
osteoporosis*- What happens? why does it happen? symptoms? treatment?
porous bones that were once strong become fragile due to loss of bone density; patient more susceptible to fractures; occurs in postmenopausal women (because estrogen and bone calcium storage decreases), sedentary or immobilized individuals, and with long-term steroid treatment; classic characteristics include fractures from normal activity, loss of standing height >2inches, and development of cervical kyphosis*(dowager's hump); treatment-drug therapy (estrogen & calcium), >calcium intake, weight-bearings exercises
oste/o=bone -porosis=porous, lessening in density
osteomalacia*-what happens? why does it happen? symptoms or characteristics? treatment?
bones become abnormally soft due to a deficiency of calcium and phosphorus in the blood resulting in fractures and noticeable deformities of the weight-bearing bones; in children its called rickets; due to a lack of vitamin D (which is necessary for calcium and phosphorus absorption) from diet, lack of sunlight, or a metabolic disorder causing malabsorption; treatment-daily vitamin D, diet of calcium, phosphorus, and protein.
osteomyelitis*- what happens? why does it happen? symptoms? treatment?
local or generalized bacterial infection that has spread to the bone and bone marrow through the blood; most commonly from staphylococcal infection but can also come from viral or fungal infection; symptoms-fever, pain, tenderness, erythema, swelling over infected bone, anorexia, headaches, and malaise (vague feeling of discomfort); treatment-bed rest, antibiotics, surgery if other do not work.
oste/o=bone myel/o=bone marrow -itis=inflammation
Ewing's sarcoma*- what is it? Who gets it? Where does it most often occur? Symptoms? Treatment?
it is a malignant tumor of the bones common to young adults, particularly adolescent boys; develops in the long bones or pelvis usually; symptoms-fever, swelling, pain and leukocytosis; treatment- chemotherapy, radiation, and surgery; 65% cure rate
sarc/o=related to the flesh -oma=tumor
osteogenic sarcoma *
-what is it?
-how is it diagnosed
-malignant tumor arising from bone; also known as osteosarcoma; most common malignant bone tumor most commonly on the distal femur*, proximal tibia* and proximal humerus*
-pain and dull aching early on; night pain, pain increases rapidly, weight loss, general malaise, and loss of appetite
-bone biopsy, X-ray, bone scan, and MRI
-radiation, chemotherapy, surgery
oste/o=bone genic=pertaining to formation, producing sarc/o=related to the flesh -oma=tumor
-What is it?
-Where is it usually found?
-When does it usually occur?
-How many turn malignant?
-the most common benign bone tumor
-tibia and femur; usually within the bone marrow cavity covered by cartilaginous cap
-usually in childhood, but might not be diagnosed until adulthood
-what is it?
-diagnosis from seeing what?
-where does it usually occur?
-what causes it?
-who gets it most often?
- a non metabolic disease of the bone
-excessive bone destruction and unorganized bone formation by osteoblasts*; bone is weak and prone to fractures; bone pain, maybe skeletal deformity (bowing of tibia* or femur* or kyphosis*, pathological fractures
-dieseased bone takes on characteristic mosaic pattern
-in one bone or several sites, most common in vertebrae, femur, tibia, pelvis, and skull
middle age, and elderly, and men
-what is it?
-is a borrowing of the vertebral canal, nerve root canals, or intervertebral foramini (openings) of the lumbar causing pressure on the nerve roots prior to their exit from the foramini
-numbness and tingling pain in the buttocks, thighs, or calves when walking, running, or climbing stairs
-may be congenital or due to spinal degeneration
-standing does not help pain, but sitting or flexing might, improved posture, abdominal muscle strengthening, weight loss may help, or surgery may be necessary
spin/o=spine -al=pertaining to
sten/o=short, contracted, or narrow -osis=condition
clubfoot; infants' foot is fixed in plantar flexion (downward) and deviates medially (inward) with heal in elevated position
abnormal curvature of the spine-what are the three types?
kyphosis*, lordosis*, and scoliosis*
outward curvature of the spine; commonly known as humpback or hunchback
inward curvature of a portion of the spine; commonly known as swayback
later (sideward) curvature of a portion of the spine, left or right
-who do curvatures of the spine affect?
-what are the names for the three different causes?
-children or adults
-idiopathic=unknown; congenital=defects of the spine at birth; pathological= some disease process
-chronic fatigue and backache to noticing a hemline longer on one side to shoulder are uneven
-depends on severity-physical exercise to back braces to surgery
-what is it?
-what are the different types called?
-a broken bone; a sudden break of a bone
hairline fracture or stress fracture
What is a closed fracture?
=simple fracture with a break in the bone but no open wound in the skin
What is an open fracture?
=a compound fracture with a break in the bone and an open wound
What is a complete fracture?
=break that extends through the entire thickness of the bone
What is an incomplete fracture?
or greenstick fracture=a break that does not extend through the entire thickness of the bone-one side is broken and one side is bent
What is a compression fracture?
=caused by bone surfaces being forced against each other (associated with osteoporosis)
What is an impacted fracture?
=when a direct force causes the bone to break forcing the broken end of the smaller bone into the broken end of the larger bone
What is a comminuted fracture?
force is so great that it splinters or crushes a segment of the bone
What is a hairline fracture?
or stress fracture is a minor fracture in which the bone continues to be in perfect alignment
What is a pathological fracture?
occurs when a bone, which is weakened by a preexisting disease, breaks in response to a force that would not cause a normal bone to break
What is an occult fracture?
"hidden" fracture not detected until several weeks after the injury
What are some causes (examples) of diseases that cause pathological fractures?
osteomalacia* and osteoporosis*
Where is an occult fracture more likely to occur?
ribs, tibia*, metatarsals*, and navicular bones (small bones of the hands)
What are the treatments options for fractures?
Closed reduction-aligning the bone fragments through manual manipulation or traction without making an incision into the skin
Open reduction-realigning the bone under direct observation during surgery using screws, pins, wires and nails internally, devices known as internal fixation devices usually used for femur and joint fractures
what is a bone scan?
What is it used to detect?
-an intravenous injection of a radioisotope which is absorbed by bone tissue and the isotope concentrated areas show up on a scan appearing darker called hot spots
-used to detect the spread of cancer to the bones, osteomyelitis, and other changes
what is bone marrow aspiration?
what is it used to detect?
where are the preferred sites?
how is it performed
-process of removing a small sample of bone marrow from a selected site with a needle for the purpose of examining the specimen under a microscope
-blood disorders such as severe anemia, acute leukemia, neutropenia, thromocytopenia
-the sternum, the iliac* crest, and the broad end of the tibia*
-using sterile techniques to prevent osteomyelitis*, with needle going down to the periosteum*
What is the procedure to evaluate bone density?
dual energy X-ray absorptiometry* (DEXA) =An X-ray machine engery photons that pass through bones to measure the density (which works better and is more accurate than a dual photon absorptiometry)
cervical vertebra 1, 2, 3, etc...
dual energy X-ray absorptiometry*
distal interphalangeal (joint)
L1, L2, L3, ...
lumbar vertebra 1, 2, 3, etc.
left lower extremity
left upper extremity
proximal interphalangeal (joint)
right lower extremity
right upper extremity
sacrum* (when transcribing, you may hear a medical report refer to the disk space between the last lumbar vertebra and the sacrum as L5-S1)
T1, T2, T3, ...
thoracic vertebra 1, 2, 3, etc.
total hip arthroplasty
total hip replacement
total knee arthroplasty
total knee replacement
The bony skeleton serves many purposes EXCEPT:
or-red cell production
True or False: To keep epiphysis and diaphysis straight, remember that epi- means outermost and dia- means through
True. Epiphysis also refers to either end of the bone.
What do you think passes through the foramen magnum ("great hole") on the underside of the skull?
spinal cavity------The brain is connected by the medulla oblongata to the spinal cord, which passes through this opening large enough to accommodate it.
True or False: The immovable joints in the skull and face are called fissures.
True or False: The first three segments of the vertebral column are named by their corresponding body position.
True. Cervic- for neck, thorac- for chest, and lumb- for loins (lower back).
The false ribs connect to the cartilage of rib number ____ instead of the sternum.
7-The false ribs are 8, 9, and 10
The carpals are to the wrist as the _______ are to the ankle.
tarsals----These are the actual bones of the wrist and ankles, and adding meta- refers to the ray-like bones on the dorsum of the hands and feet which come off of them
True or False: Osteoporosis and osteomalacia are describing the same problem, but one is more severe than the other.
False. Osteoporosis means the bone is still mineralized but severely porous; osteomalacia is demineralization of bone. Osteopenia is considered the precursor to osteoporosis, literally meaning “bone poverty.”
If chondr- means cartilage, what do you think the term osteochondroma literally means?
-cartilaginous tumor of the bone
-bony tumor of the cartilage
-tumor of bone or cartilage
-tumor of bone and cartilage
tumor of bone and cartilage----- A cartilaginous cap covers this bony tumor, usually located within the bone marrow cavity
I jumped down from a ledge and heard a crack in my shin. X-rays showed that the broken ends of bone were forced into each other. This is called a(n) __________ fracture.
impacted---- Think of 2 cars hitting head-on.
True or False: A comminuted fracture can usually be treated with a closed reduction (no surgery).
False. Comminuted fractures involve splinters of bone, which is more complicated. The wound will need to be opened for surgical fixation.