Chronic Kidney Disease Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Hallmark of DM nephropathy

A

persistent albuminuria > 300 mg/24 hours

dm retinopathy + absence of clinical or laboratory evidence of other kidney or renal tract disease

microalbuminuria=urinary albumin excretion of > 30 mg/24 hours and less than 300 mg/24 hours in 2 of 3 samples

DEFINICAO MICROALBUMINURIA= presnca de albuminuria maior q o valor normal mas nao detectavel no dipstick 30-300mg/dia

According to the American Diabetes Association, for patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus, urine albumin should be assessed annually, starting from the point of diagnosis.

Microalbuminuria is associated with kidney dysfunction and atherosclerotic cardiovascular events.

Healthcare workers need to encourage changes in lifestyle and initiate therapy when microalbuminuria is discovered.

If treatment with an ARB or ACE inhibitor does not sufficiently control proteinuria in patients with chronic kidney disease, further control of proteinuria can be done by adding mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists (MRA), such as spironolactone or eplerenone.

However, MRAs are associated with an increased risk of hyperkalemia.

A new agent finerenone which is a nonsteroidal MRA decreased proteinuria while causing lower rates of hyperkalemia.

The current diagnosis of microalbuminuria also includes a urinary albumin/creatinine ratio (UACR) ranging between 2 to 20 mg.

In addition to the individual variability, one should be cautious that some cases have an elevated UACR at baselines, such as males, African Americans, Asians, smokers, people with higher muscle mass, patients with urinary tract infection, and genital leakage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

first pathologic sign in dm nephropathy type 1 dm and proteinuria

A

glomerular basement membrane thickening

Microalbuminuria develops from a dysfunction of the GBM permitting albumin to enter the urine. inadequate control of blood sugars inhibits this enzyme, reducing the negative charge on GBM and allowing excessive amounts of albumin to leak out. Advanced glycosylation end-products can also neutralize the negative charge of albumin by binding with the proteins of both the GBM and mesangial matrix.[6] Additionally, hyperglycemia initiates the glycation of GBM and podocyte receptors interfering with the charge on GBM.[1][2][6]

The current hypothesis, known as the ‘Steno hypothesis,’ is that systemic vascular endothelial dysfunction initiates the development of microalbuminuria and cardiovascular disease, as there is a strong correlation between these three variables.

Therefore, having comorbidities that cause endothelial damage is considered a risk factor. These include increased age, insulin resistance, dyslipidemia, obesity, hypertension, decreased physical activity, and smoking.[5] Some studies predict a genetic component linking together microalbuminuria, atherosclerosis, and even nephropathy. An increased UAE rate was seen among patients with a deletion-deletion polymorphism of the ACE gene.[6]

Microalbuminuria has been associated with patients who have type 1 or type 2 diabetes. For patients with type 1, the prevalence of microalbuminuria within the first three years after diagnosis is only 6%; however, after five years, it is 41%. In type 2, the prevalence is 20% to 25% for newly diagnosed and long-standing diabetics.[8][9] In patients with uncontrolled hypertension, microalbuminuria was seen in 47.4% of patients; whereas, in patients with controlled blood pressure it was 36.7%.[10]

Go to:

Pathophysiology

Microalbuminuria arises when GBM, a complex sieve, leaks an increased amount of albumin. The proposed mechanism is a combination of glomerular size enlargement, GBM thickening, mesangial expansion, and podocyte foot process effacement. Microalbuminuria can also occur via inadequate tubular reabsorption.[2][7]

Dysregulated enzymatic metabolism of the extracellular matrix is the pathogenesis behind developing endothelial damage.[3][8] Thus, at vascular places, other than just the renal system, the albumin can either leak out of or enter the vessel wall. When this happens, albumin can stimulate inflammation, lipid accumulation, and atherosclerosis, which eventually could form fixed albuminuria and decreased kidney function.[7]

Go to:

Histopathology

There are structural changes at the level of GBM that lead to microalbuminuria. However, these are heterogeneous and may even be present in patients with normoalbuminuric diabetes. The GBM alterations are typically seen in type 1 diabetes, but not type 2.[8]

Furthermore, researchers found no correlation between increased GBM permeability and any histological changes. Since the majority of the GBM dysfunction is through altered charge selectivity, not size, it would not appear on histology.[2][8]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

arteriolar hyalinosis usually seen within

A

3 to 5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

exudative lesions in type 1 DM nephropathy pathology

A

arteriolar hyalinosis, bowmans capsular drops, hyaline caps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

45-59 ml/min GFR

A

stage 3a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

GFR 30-44

A

stage 3b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

GFR 15-29

A

stage 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

GFR less than 15

A

stage 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

BP target in CKD with proteinuria

A

less than 120/80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

education on RRT and hepatitis B vaccination

A

Stage 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

AVF creation

A

stage 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Goal for Acei or ARB treatment

A

urine protein level < 0.5 g/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

target for weight loss in obese patients

A

5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

dietary salt restriction

A

<5 g (90 meqs sodium per day)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

protein requirement for normal adults or those with uncomplicated CKD

A

0.8 g protein/kg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

CKD patients with complications

A

0.6 g protein/kg/day or 0.3 g/kg + ketoacids or a mixture of aminoacid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CKD patients with loss of muscle mass

A

0.8 g protein/kg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CKD with proteinuria

A

< 0.8 g protein/kg/day + 1 g protein/g proteinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

at least 3 episodes of itch in a 2 week period that causes difficulty for the patient or as itch that occurs over a 6 month period in a regular pattern

A

pruritus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

associated with hyperparathyroidism or elevated Ca x Phos

A

calciphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

main regulator of systemic iron hoemostasis

A

hepcidin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

increase in PTH secretion immediate effects

A

increase in 1a hydroxylase activity,

bone turnover,

ca reabsoprtion
decrease in renal po4 reabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

more than 3 rbc/hpf in atleast 2 of 3 freshly voioded midstream clean catch urine

A

asymptomatic hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

imaging to localize and control source of bleeding

A

cystoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

diagnostic when there is any suspicion of upper tract disease

A

retrograde pyelography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

glomerular hematuria + active urine sediment + wbcs/casts

A

nephritic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

hallmark of nephritic syndrome

A

glomerular hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

definitive finding in nephritic syndrome

A

rbc casts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

principal underlying abnormality in nephrotic syndrome

A

increased permeability of the glomerular capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

most common underlying systemic disease causing nephrotic syndrome

A

Diabetes Mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

1+ urine dipstick protein is equivalent

A

30-100 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

most common urine lipid

A

esterified cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

birefingent birght cross like appearance in polarizing microscope

A

lipiduria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

type of RTA associated in obstructive uropathy

A

type 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

test of choice to diagnose obstructive uropathy

A

renal ultrasonography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

stage 1 hypertension

A

140-159/90-99

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

benzene ring-shaped cysteine crustals

A

cystinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

coffin lid crystals

A

struvite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

imaging procedure of choice for stones

A

noncontrast helical CT scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

radioopaque stones

A

calcium, cysteine

41
Q

radiolucent stones

A

uric acid, indinavir or triamterene stones

42
Q

size of stones that will pass spontaneously

A

4 mm

43
Q

most important vascular complication in patients with CKD

A

CAD

44
Q

strongest indicator of possible renal underpefusion

A

overt hypotension

45
Q

normal blood glucose in OGTT

A

less than 140 mg/dL

46
Q

impaired glucose tolerance or preDM

A

OGTT 140-199 mg/dL

47
Q

primary cause of insulin resistance in uremia

A

impaired tissue sensitivity

48
Q

independent risk factors for cardiovascular complication in patients with ESKD

A

insulin resistance and hyperinsulinemia

49
Q

uremic dyslipidemia

A

increased triglycerides, ldl and vldl, decreased hdl cholesterol

50
Q

metformin should be used with caution when eGFR is

A

less than 60 ml/min

51
Q

when to discontinue metformin

A

less than 30 ml/min

52
Q

insulin sensitizer, causes lactic acidosis in CKD

A

metformin

53
Q

T3 levels in CKD

A

low due to low conversion of T4

54
Q

strong inhibitors of protein binding of T4

A

urea, creatinine, indoles, phenols ,heparin

55
Q

Increase in GH secretion

A

fasting, insulin induced hypoglycemia, increase of protein

56
Q

glucose load in growth hormone secretion

A

decrease GH secretion

57
Q

reason for reduced linear bone growth in CKD

A

reduced effectiveness of GF and IGF-1

58
Q

primary mediator of effects of GH

A

IGF-1

59
Q

GH deficiency in GFR and renal plasma flow

A

decrease GFR and plasma flow

60
Q

reason for GH resistance

A

decreased GH receptors and post GH receptor defects, decreased IGF-1 synthesis

61
Q

stimulates protein synthesis, decreases urea generation and improves nitrogen balance

A

recombinant human GH

62
Q

adverse reaction to GH treatment

A

benign intracranial hypertension, hyperglycemia, fluid retention

63
Q

most abundant steroid hormone

A

DHEA

64
Q

antifibrotic and antiapoptotic effects in kidney

A

estrogen

65
Q

responsible for decreased libido, erectile dysfunction, oliospermia and infertility, osteopenia in adults with ESKD

A

hypogonadism, low testoteron and hyperprolactinemia

66
Q

development of lipid enriched plaques in the intimal layer of the artery

A

atherosclerosis

67
Q

phenomenon of noncalcified nonatheromatous stiffening of smaller muscular arteries

A

arteriolosclerosis

68
Q

characterized by medial thickening and heavy calcification without the presence of atheroma

A

monckerberg’s medial calcific sclerosis

69
Q

LV remodeling occurs as early as

A

stage 2

70
Q

indirect risk factors of CVD/CKD

A

DM, obesity

71
Q

partially treated uremia and side effects of dialysis

A

residual syndrome

72
Q

most abundant solute excreted by kidney

A

urea

73
Q

uremic toxin that impairs platelet function

A

guanidosuccinic acid

74
Q

aromatic waste compound normally excreted in the largest quantity

A

hippurate

75
Q

uremic solute associated with cardiovascular death in patients undergoing hd

A

p-cresol sulfate

76
Q

Fractional excretion of calcium remains unchanged until gfr

A

<25 ml/min

77
Q

As GFR decrease Na and Phosphate is maintained by

A

Decreased reabsorption

78
Q

absence of cellular (osteoblast and osteoclast) activity, osteoid formation and endosteal fibrosis

A

low turn over (adynamic bone disease)

79
Q

bone biopsies that features secondary hpt and mineralization defect, extensive osteoclastic and osteoblastic activity and increased endosteal peritrabecular fibrosis with more osteoid

A

mixed uremic osteodystrophy

80
Q

rate of skeletal remodeling: bone resoprtion + formation

A

turn over

81
Q

how well bone collagen calcified during the formation phase of skeletal remodeling

A

mineralization

82
Q

amount of bone per unit volume of tissue

A

volume

83
Q

Dxa to assess fracture risk is recommended/not recommended in

A

stage 1-3/stage 3b-5

84
Q

LV remodeling occurs

A

Stage 2-3 CKD

85
Q

primary disease of cardiac muscle assoc with ckd causing systolic dysfunction; interstitial myocardial fibrosis

A

Uremic cardiomyopathy

86
Q

when is statins recommended in ckd

A

Stage 3-5 in older than 50 years or less than 50 yo with additional risk factors

87
Q

screening of anemia starts at stage

A

G3

88
Q

tx of aluminum toxicity

A

deionized water or chelation with desferrioxamine

89
Q

most effective tx of posttransplantation erythrocytosis

A

Raas blocker

90
Q

gold standard in assesing iron stores

A

Bone marrow iron

91
Q

if hit is established, what should be considered

A

Direct thrombin inhibitors or factor Xa

92
Q

Other tx for uremic bleeding

A

Ddvap
cryoprecipitate
estrogen

93
Q

primary prevention of stroke

A

aspirin

94
Q

what benefits would initiation of bicarbonate confer

A

Delay in progression of her CKD
• Improvement in serum potassium
• Improved bone health
• Reduce muscle wasting

95
Q

As microalbuminuria occurs mostly in the absence of any serious underlying renal disease, more benign and common causes of microalbuminuria should be considered first. The following questions should be asked:

A

Is this transient - This may be because of physical exertion and fever

Is this orthostatic - Typically seen in tall, thin adolescents or people younger than 30 years; there is an association with severe lordosis; normal renal function and albuminuria is frequently less than 1 g/24 hours[13]

Is nonrenal disease causing it, such as severe cardiac failure, sleep apnea - Normal renal function and albumin loss is less than 1 g/24 hours

Are there any symptoms suggestive of nephrotic syndrome or significant glomerular pathology

Are there any changes in the appearance of urine, such as red/smoky, frothy; is there any correlation of this to a respiratory tract infection

Is there ankle, periorbital, labial, or scrotal edema

Has the patient ever been diagnosed with high blood pressure

Is there a history of high cholesterol levels in the patient’s blood

Has the patient ever had a diagnosis of a multisystem disease or another glomerulopathy

Is there a past or family history of any renal disease

If the patient has diabetes mellitus, for how long; are there any complications, such as retinopathy

Is a family history of diabetic nephropathy present

Are there any multisystem inflammatory diseases present, such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) or rheumatoid arthritis

Are there symptoms like joint discomfort, skin rash, bone pain, fever, weight loss, night sweats, or Raynaud syndrome

Is the patient on any medication, including herbal remedies

Are there any past medical illnesses, such as jaundice, malaria, tuberculosis, syphilis, or endocarditis

Is the patient at risk of HIV infection or hepatitis

96
Q

complicacoes da proteinuria

A

With progressive disease, patients can develop macroalbuminuria, diabetic kidney disease, and proteinuria.[1] The level of serum albumin is unable to predict the nutritional status of a patient. However, during states of extreme starvation, serum albumin is low, and urine albumin is high.

Other complications of proteinuria are:

Pulmonary edema which is attributable to fluid overload

Acute kidney injury secondary to intravascular depletion and progression of kidney disease

Increased risk of cardiovascular diseases

Increased risk of vascular thrombosis, such as renal vein thrombosis

Increased risk of bacterial infections

97
Q

albuminuria prognostico

A

The main reason to test the UAE level is to evaluate the patient for possible future complications. However, providers should not merely view microalbuminuria as a kidney damage marker, but as a predictor of kidney dysfunction progression rate and reflect the effect of systemic disorders on the kidney.[1]

It is well known that the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is useful in staging chronic kidney disease. In comparison to microalbuminuria, GFR is a pure kidney damage marker. Several studies have demonstrated that there is a continuous correlation between microalbuminuria and developing end-stage renal disease. Therefore, when presented with a patient with a reduced GFR classified under stage 3 or 4, the patient with microalbuminuria should be considered very high risk, instead of high risk as per the GFR. This classification ensures that prompt action is taken to prevent further complications, such as macroalbuminuria, diabetic kidney disease, proteinuria, and chronic kidney disease.[5]

Microalbuminuria has links with a high rate of atherosclerotic cardiovascular events (such as coronary artery disease, stroke, and peripheral vascular disease) and subsequently increased morbidity and mortality. The evidence reveals in adults; it is a four to six-fold increase, whereas, in patients with diabetes, it is only two-fold.[3][5][6][9] The risk of cardiovascular events is even higher for patients with macroalbuminuria versus microalbuminuria. Thus, screening and compliance with the treatment of microalbuminuria could prevent macroalbuminuria and even death.[3][6] The UACR range for microalbuminuria starts at 2 mg/day, but data shows that the risk between increased UAE and cardiovascular disease can begin even at 1 mg/day.[3]

Among patients with essential hypertension, microalbuminuria can predict kidney function decline, coronary artery stenosis, and hypertensive retinopathy. Importantly, the latter two are reversible with adequate treatment

98
Q

albuminuria tto

A

If microalbuminuria is present, aggressive measures should ensue with the ultimate goal of decreasing the risk of cardio-metabolic complications. The first-line treatment is lifestyle modifications to control diabetes and hypertension. Although it seems trivial, this can save retinal function, prevent further kidney damage, decrease the risk of cerebrovascular accidents, and reduce microvascular complications.[5] For patients with type 2 diabetes with microalbuminuria, reports indicate that a normal protein diet of (0.8 g x kg)/(bodyweight x day) was optimal, not a low protein diet.[19] Interestingly, eating chicken, instead of red meat, saw a reduction in urinary albumin excretion of 46% along with decreasing total cholesterol and apolipoprotein B in type 2 diabetic patients with microalbuminuria.[11]

Maintaining an A1c of less than 7% has been shown to decrease the risk of developing not only microalbuminuria but also macroalbuminuria. The evidence shows that rosiglitazone and insulin have the best outcomes and the least side effects.[11] Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB), or vasodilatory beta-blockers can reduce blood pressure. Although many providers commonly believe that ACE inhibitors and ARBs are interchangeable in the treatment method, some data does not support the effectiveness of ARBs.[5] These classes of drugs have an effect on reducing proteinuria separate from their antihypertensive effect.[20] In patients younger than 50 years, the blood pressure goal should be 120/70-75 mmHg, whereas it is slightly higher at 125-130/80-85 mmHg in those older than 50. Moreover, ACE inhibitors are useful in patients with diabetes, even without hypertension. They have a reno-protective effect of decreasing mesangial expansion and preventing the onset of glomerulosclerosis.[6][11][21] The other anti-hypertensives help manage hypertension but have minimal effect in delaying the progression of kidney disease.[3][22] Normalization of blood pressure in hypertensive patients results in a decrease in intraglomerular pressure and albuminuria.[23]

If treatment with an ARB or ACE inhibitor does not sufficiently control proteinuria in patients with chronic kidney disease, further control of proteinuria can be done by adding mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists (MRA), such as spironolactone or eplerenone. However, MRAs are associated with an increased risk of hyperkalemia. A new agent finerenone which is a nonsteroidal MRA decreased proteinuria while causing lower rates of hyperkalemia.[24]

Immunosuppressants, such as cyclophosphamide and azathioprine should be used in patients who have progressive renal insufficiency or who have vasculitic changes on renal biopsy.[25]

Several experimental drugs show promising evidence but require further studies to evaluate if they decrease the long-term cardiovascular disease associated with microalbuminuria. For one of the groups, the mechanism is by decreasing protein glycation. These medications are thiamine, ALT-711 (a cross-link breaker of advanced glycation), and pimagedine (a second-generation inhibitor of advanced glycation). Additionally, ruboxistaurin, a protein kinase C-beta inhibitor, has been implicated in decreasing UAE.[11] Increased vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), which regulates vascular permeability and angiogenesis, has been linked with microalbuminuria in patients with type 2 diabetes. Thus, VEGF inhibitors could be helpful in patients with microalbuminuria.[8] Glycosaminoglycans, such as sulodexide, can also decrease albuminuria.[3] Statins, on the other hand, have a well-documented effect in reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease, but their role in decreasing urinary albumin excretion is still controversial. Due to its cardioprotection, it merits inclusion in the treatment regimen.[3]

When considering the associated comorbidities with microalbuminuria, the treatment recommendations should also include weight loss, aspirin, and maintaining low-density lipoprotein cholesterol of less than 100.[11] Finally, the level of microalbuminuria can serve as an indicator of treatment response, especially in patients with hyperinsulinemia, insulin resistance, and hypertension.[1][3]

In terms of specific treatments, sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors, such as canagliflozin and empagliflozin have gained popularity not only in the management of diabetes mellitus but also in reducing the development or further worsening of albuminuria.[26] A meta-analysis observed that the combination therapy with SGLT2 inhibitors and other hypoglycemic agents helps reduce albuminuria.[27]

Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (NDCCBs), such as diltiazem and verapamil, decrease proteinuria more than dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (DCCBs) because NDCCBs affect both the afferent and efferent arteriole.[28][29]

Endothelin activation has an association with renal inflammation and fibrosis. Endothelin A (ETA) receptor blockade leads to the dilation of the glomerular capillaries, reducing albumin permeability. Endothelin B (ETB) reduces arterial pressure by decreasing salt and water reabsorption from the kidneys. Experimental ETA-selective antagonists, such as avosentan and atrasentan, have been shown to decrease proteinuria.[30][31]

99
Q

e Brito-Ashurst et al. (6) reported that oral

sodium bicarbonate supplements at a dos-

age of approximately 22 mEq/d (and stan-

dard therapy) slowed the decline in mea-

sured CrCl from 5.9 to 1.9 ml/min per 1.73

m

2

. Fewer patients developed end-stage

kidney disease (6.5 versus 33.0%). Nutri-

tional parameters, including dietary intake,

normalized protein nitrogen appearance,

serum albumin, and mid-arm muscle cir-

cumference, improved in the bicarbonate-

supplemented group

A