Flashcards in Exam 2 SNAPP and Practice Qs Review Deck (27):
What is a subgaleal hematoma and in what disorders is it common?
It is a hematoma between the periosteum and the skin of the cranium. It often occurs with vacuum-assisted delivery or epidural hematomas.
High-impact injuries to the head present with what type of skull fracture?
Linear... depressed presents from blunt-object impacts.
Growing fractures are caused from _____________.
The best predictor of prognosis following an epidural (or subdural) hematoma is ___________.
time to surgery
Overactivation of NMDA and AMPA receptors leads to _______-toxicity.
What is worse (in a GCS test), abnormal extension or flexion?
What feature underlies the phenomenon of second-impact syndrome?
Vasogenic edema from the first impact occurs due to loss of autoregulation. The increases in ICP from the second impact add to this and make it that much worse.
In children, ependymomas most often appear in the ___________, whereas in adults it is most often __________.
4th ventricle; in the spinal cord
"Tightly packed cells that cause obstructive hydrocephalus" are most often ____________.
choroid plexus papilloma
Having what genetic marker is predictive of worse prognosis in medulloblastoma?
In addition to promoting neovascularization, VEGF also stimulates ____________.
True or false: individuals with delirium are usually unaware of the problem.
False. Because delirium symptoms tend to fluctuate, people will frequently be aware that something is wrong.
What is the distinction between mutations in presenilin 1, presenilin 2, APP, and apoE in Alzheimer's?
ApoE is a susceptibility gene (meaning you're slightly more likely to get it but not absolute), while the others are considered causative mutations that greatly increase likelihood of developing AD.
Stroke risk increases by ______ percent for every 20 years of life.
_________ percent of those with MS present between ages 18 and 45.
What is the relationship between types of immunopathologies and MS patients?
Four different types of immunopathologies can occur in MS, but most patients have only one or two subtypes – not all four in one patient.
The defining cellular feature of MS is __________.
demyelination with a perivascular lymphocyte infiltration
Glucose will always be normal in the CSF of patients with ___________.
___________ are only used in assessing the primary progression form of MS.
Which tumor type commonly has p53 mutations?
Describe the presentation of Wernicke's encephalopathy.
WE (aka Wino's encephalopathy) is due to thiamine deficiency (B1), often concurrent with alcoholism. It presents with ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, confabulation, and memory loss. It is a medical emergency – potentially lethal if IV thiamine is not administered.
Rather surprisingly, metastatic lesions in the brain present as _____________ on pathologic examination.
well demarcated and non-infiltrative at their edges
Brodmann's areas 1 and 2 are involved in ________________.
detection of complex features of somatosensory stimulation such as orientation and direction of movement
The only fibers that are non-myelinated are ________.
Go through the fibers again.
A alpha: muscle and tendon proprioception; myelinated largest; fastest
A beta: skin mechanoreceptors; myelinated; second largest; second fastest
A delta: hot pain; cold pain; cool temperature; sharp pain; myelinated second smallest; second slowest
C fibers: warm temperature; burning/aching pain; capsaicin sensing; unmyelinated; smallest; slowest
Why can a small dose of local anesthetic selectively eliminate secondary pain but preserve primary (i.e., sharp) pain?
Because the C fibers that carry secondary pain are smaller and more easily blocked by local anesthetic!