URR 81 Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q

A small rounded prominence on the anteroinferior aspect of the normal caudate lobe is called:
a. Reidel lobe
b. quadrate lobe
c. distal papillary process
d. elongated left lobe

A

c

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2
Q

Which of the following is located between the transversalis fascia and the posterior parietal peritoneum>
a. linea alba
b. pancreas
c. stomach
d. spleen

A

b

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3
Q

The first branch of the common hepatic artery is the:
a. duodenal artery
b. cystic artery
c. pancreatic artery
d. gastroduodenal artery

A

d

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4
Q

A patient presents with a history of choledocholithiasis. How will you assess the common bile duct for the presence of a stone?
a. demonstrate a long axis gallbladder image and look for the CBD superior to it
b. locate the main portal vein and look for the CBD posterior to it
c. demonstrate a transverse view of the pancreatic head and look for the CBD entering the anterior aspect
d. demonstrate a longitudinal view of the main portal vein and look for the CBD anterior to it

A

d

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5
Q

The medial segment of the left lobe lies between:
a. the ligamentum venosum and IVC
b. the ligamentum teres and the spleen
c. the middle hepatic vein and the ligamentum teres
d, the right hepatic vein middle hepatic vein

A

c

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6
Q

Which of the following blood vessels delivers the majority of oxygenated blood that enters the liver?
a. hepatic veins
b. proper hepatic artery
c. common hepatic artery
d. main portal vein

A

D

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7
Q

__ transplant rejection appears as swollen kidney, loss of corticomedullary definition, enlarged renal pyramids, compression of the renal sinus, and decreased blood flow with increased RI value.
a. chronic
b. acute
c. chronic or acute, stages of rejection are not able to be differentiated with sonography
d. rejection of a renal allograft is not usually evaluated by sonography

A

b

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8
Q

Which muscles group is located anteromedial to the lobes of the thyroid gland?
a. longus colli muscle
b. strap muscles
c. sternocleidomastoid
d. tracheal muscles

A

b

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9
Q

Which of the following holds the psoas muscle?
a. perirenal space
b. retrofascial space
c. anterior pararenal space
d. Space of Retzius

A

b

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10
Q

The __ zone is the largest zone in the prostate.
a. central
b. peripheral
c. paraprostatic
d. transitional

A

b

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11
Q

While scanning the thyroid, you identify a 0.6 cm ovoid structure outside the thyroid, lateral to the left carotid artery. The structure has a thin hypoechoic rim surrounding a hyperechoic center. These findings are most suggestive of:
a. thyroglossal duct cyst
b. parathyroid carcinoma
c. normal lymph node
d. normal esophagus

A

c

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12
Q

Which scrotal artery encircles the testicular periphery?
a. deferential
b. centripetal
c. cremasteric
d. capsular

A

d

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13
Q

The thyroid normally produces the most of which of the following hormones?
a. thyrotropin
b. T4
c. TSH
d. T3

A

b

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14
Q

When evaluating the small bowel with ultrasound, which finding below is always considered abnormal?
a. intraluminal and extraluminal fluid
b. Bull’s eye appearance
c. 5 layers gut wall
d. Color Doppler displayed with peristalsis

A

a

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15
Q

Aside from the pancreas, what other organ produces amylase?
a. adrenal glands
b. salivary glands
c. pituitary gland
d. liver

A

b

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16
Q

Which muscle group is located anterolateral to the lobes of the thyroid gland?
a. sternocleidomastoid
b. longus colli muscle
c. strap muscles
d. tracheal muscles

A

a

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17
Q

The functional unit of the thyroid gland is called __
a. nodule
b. lobule
c. follicle
d. lobe

A

c

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18
Q

Where is the dartos muscle and fascia?
a. in the urinary bladder
b. in the abdominal wall
c. in the scrotal sac
d. in the cystic duct

A

c

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19
Q

The cardiac orifice is:
a. the bare area of the liver that allows the hepatic veins to pass through
b. the opening by which the esophagus communicates with the stomach
c. the opening in the diaphragm that allows the IVC to pass through
d. the opening in the diaphragm that allows the aorta to pass through

A

b

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20
Q

Calcitonin is produced by which of the following types of cells?
a. thyroid parafollicular
b. parathyroid parafollicular
c. parathyroid follicular
d. thyroid follicular

A

a

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21
Q

The __ is formed at the junction of the vas deferens and seminal vesicles.
a. afferent ducts
b. rete testes
c. ejaculatory duct
d. efferent ducts

A

c

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22
Q

What abnormality involves the Hesselbach triangle?
a. ventral hernia
b. femoral hernia
c. spigelian hernia
d. direct inguinal hernia

A

d

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23
Q

Ascites can be identified in all of the following spaces/areas, except:
a. subhepatic space below the right lobe
b. Morison pouch
c. paracolic gutters
d. between the coronary ligaments with the bare area of the liver

A

d

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24
Q

Which blood vessel is located lateral to the left lobe of the thyroid and demonstrates an anechoic ovoid shape in a transverse view of the mid thyroid?
a. left internal jugular vein
b. left common carotid artery
c. left external carotid artery
d. superior vena cava

A

a

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25
Which of the following scrotal structures carries the seminal fluid from the rete testis to the epididymis? a. efferent ducts b. vas deferens c. seminiferous tubules d. mediastinum testis
a
26
Which scrotal arteries penetrate the testicular parenchyma to supply oxygenated blood? a. capsular b. cremasteric c. centripetal d. deferential
c
27
The __ is a connective sheath that is connected to the large intestine that provides structure and support, along with encasing/protecting blood vessels. a. mesentery b. greater omentum c. mesocolon d. lesser omentum
c
28
The internal jugular vein merges with what vein to form the brachiocephalic vein? a. brachial vein b. innominate vein c. common carotid vein d. subclavian vein
d
29
The normal epididymis is located: a. posteromedial to the testicle b. anterolateral to the testicle c. anteromedial to the testicle d. posterolateral to the testicle
d
30
Which two gut layers nor normally hypoechoic on the ultrasound image?? a. submucosa, muscularis propria b. serosa, superficial mucosa c. deep mucosa, muscularis propria d. serosa, muscularis propria
c
31
The __ is a connective sheath that is connected to the small intestine that provides structure and support, along with encasing/protecting blood vessels. a. mesocolon b. greater omentum c. mesentery d. lesser omentum
c
32
The superior thyroidal artery is a branch of the __ a. vertebral b. innominate c. internal carotid artery d. external carotid artery
d
33
The appendix is normally identified: a. anterior to the terminal ileum and lateral to the iliac vessels b. only in patients less than 150 lbs c. posterior to the terminal ileum and anterior to the iliac vessels d. originating from the sigmoid colon at the level of the inguinal ligament
c
34
When evaluating intratesticular flow, which vessel is sampled by Doppler? a. centripetal b. gonadal c. cremasteric d. deferential
a
35
Which of the following connects the subphrenic space with Morison pouch? a. foramen of Luschka b. foramen magnum c. foramen of Morgagni d. epiploic foramen
d
36
In pediatric patients, the volume of what structure is calculated using the Lambert or Ellipsoid formula? a. liver b. testicles c. kidneys d. spleen
b
37
The paracolic gutters: a. allow fluid to move between the abdomen and pelvis b. trap fluid in the pelvic area c. trap fluid in the lateral abdomen d. are divided by the linea alba
a
38
Which of the following normally secretes moderate amounts of mucus? a. bronchial alveoli b. seminal vesicles c. duodenum d. pancreas
c
39
Which of the following is true regarding the anatomic position of the left adrenal gland? a. anterior to the pancreas tail b. lateral to the left diaphragm crura c. anterior to the IVC d. superolateral to the left kidney
b
40
Which of the following retroperitoneal spaces contains the adrenal gland? a. anterior pararenal space b. perirenal space c. retrofascial space d. Glisson capsule
b
41
An increase in which of the following hormones causes increased calcium resorption in the small intestines? a. parathyroid stimulating hormone b. T4 c. calcitonin d. thyroid stimulating hormone
a
42
The gastroesophageal junction is best seen in the __ plane, anterior to the aorta and posterior to the left lobe of the liver. a. coronal b. radial c. transverse d. longitudinal
d
43
A patient is referred for a renal ultrasound due to suspected cross fused renal ectopia. What is the expected ultrasound finding for this condition? a. both kidneys are located on the same side of the body and fused together at varied locations b. there is a single kidney located in the midline pelvic region c. the kidneys are in their normal position but the upper poles of the kidneys are joined across the midline, usually anterior to the mid aorta d. the kidneys are in the normal position but the lower poles of the kidneys are joined across the midline, usually anterior to the mid aorta
a
44
Which of the following sonographic characteristics is an expected finding in a patient with acute renal vein thrombosis? a. increased antegrade diastolic flow in the renal arteries b. enlarged kidney with mottled echogenicity c. high velocity, continuous venous flow within the kidney d. prominent corticomedullary definition
b
45
Schistosomiasis and chronic cystitis are commonly associated with what Sonographic findings in the urinary bladder? a. the bladder lumen is filled with numerous non-shadowing stone b. ureterocele formation c. diffuse bladder wall calcification d. bladder wall atrophy due to reduced arterial supply
c
46
Which of the following has the lowest risk of developing renal cell carcinoma? a. patients with autosomal recessive PKD b. patients with acquired cystic disease c. patients with tuberous sclerosis d. patients on long term dialysis
a
47
Which of the following are complications associated with chronic hydronephrosis? a. urinoma and hematoma b. systemic HTN and renal failure c. portal thrombosis and pulmonary embolism d. neurogenic bladder and medullary sponge kidney
b
48
Increased renal fat in the renal sinus with a thinned cortex indicates: a. sinus lipomatosis b. chronic renal failure c. acute tubular necrosis d. angiomyolipomatosis
a
49
On ultrasound, a mycetoma appears as: a. a hypoechoic mass that causes propagation artifact b. a hyperechoic mass without posterior shadowing c. a hypoechoic mass that causes reverberation artifact d. a hyperechoic mass with posterior enhancement
b
50
Which of the following is the most common cause of acute renal failure in an allograft? a. polycystic disease b. renal artery stenosis c. multicystic kidney disease d. acute tubular necrosis
d
51
Which of the following is a sonographic characteristic of acute tubular necrosis? a. increased diastolic flow in the arcuate arteries b. prominent, echogenic renal pyramids c. cortical thickness <1 cm d. atrophied kidney
b
52
A 6 year old female presents with hematuria and a palpable mass in the RUQ. The most likely diagnosis is: a. pheochromocytoma b. oncocytoma c. staghorn calculus d. nephroblastoma
d
53
54
An asymptomatic patient presents for a renal US for size evaluation due to chronic systemic HTN. The right kidney demonstrates a 1cm rounded hyperechoic mass within the renal cortex. There is no posterior enhancement or shadowing noted with the mass. Which of the following can be used to describe the US findings? a. angiomyolipoma or lipoma b. adenoma or fibroma c. oncocytoma d. hepatoma
a
55
A patient presents for a renal ultrasound due to a history of tuberous sclerosis. What is the doctor looking for? a. angiomyolipomas b. renal artery stenosis c. hydronephrosis d. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
a
56
Which of the following best describes the ultrasound appearance of nephrocalcinosis? a. a large calculus within the renal pelvis causing hydronephrosis b. hyperechoic renal pyramids that may shadow c. three or more renal calculi identified in each pole of the kidney d. multiple linear calcifications within the renal parenchyma
b
57
A tardus parvus waveform is described as? a. pronounced of early systolic peak and prolonged acceleration time b. resistive index of 1.0 or greater c. reduced systolic velocity with diastolic flow reversal d. absence of early systolic peak and prolonged acceleration time
d
58
Analgesic abuse is the most common cause of what renal abnormality? a. acute renal failure b. papillary necrosis c. nephrocalcinosis d. glomerulonephritis
b
59
A patient presents with a history of high fever, HTN, nausea and vomiting. Lab results indicate the presence of white blood cells, pus and bacteria in the urine. A small, shrunken, misshapen left kidney with no evidence of shadowing or fluid collection and a normal right kidney are documented on the ultrasound exam. What are these findings most suggestive of? a. emphysematous pyelonephritis b. chronic pyelonephritis c. acute glomerulonephritis d. acute renal failure
b
60
Which of the following correctly describes how a Sonographer can differentiate a neuroblastoma from a nephroblastoma on an abdominal US? a. it is not possible to differentiate these two tumors sonographically b. the neuroblastoma is highly vascular while the nephroblastoma is mainly necrotic due to limited vascular supply c. the nephroblastoma will not distort the renal contour or disrupt the capsule. The neuroblastoma will distort the renal contour and disrupt the capsule. d. the neuroblastoma will not distort the renal contour or disrupt the capsule. The nephroblastoma will distort the renal contour and disrupt the capsule.
d
61
The most common location for a urinary obstruction caused by a renal calculus is in the __. a. distal urethra b. distal ureter c. proximal ureter d. trigone of the bladder
b
62
Which of the following is a Doppler indication of acute renal vein thrombosis? a. decreased cortical resistance b. resistive index >0.7 in the cortex c. increased diastolic flow d. enlarged kidney
b
63
If Doppler evaluation of the parenchymal artery of a kidney demonstrates a resistive index of 0.25, the findings are considered: a. suspicious for proximal renal artery stenosis b. suspicious for acute renal failure c. suspicious for chronic renal failure d. normal
a
64
A large calculus located in the renal pelvis area is called: a. parapelvic stone b. staghorn calculi c. gerota calculi d. parapelvic stone or staghorn calculus
b
65
Hepatic fibrosis and portal HTN are seen with which of the following? a. multicystic dysplastic kidney disease b. perinatal autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease c. acute hydronephrosis d. juvenile autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
d
66
A 55 year old female presents with mild flank pain. The right kidney measures 13cm and demonstrates 3 cysts. The left kidney measures 13.8cm and demonstrates 2 cysts. Which of the following is the most likely explanation of the findings? a. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease b. autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease c. acquired cystic kidney disease d. multicystic dysplastic kidney disease
a
67
The most common site for renal artery stenosis is: a. at the renal hilum b. in the segmental artery of the lower pole c. in the segmental artery of the upper pole d. at the origin of the renal artery
d
68
Multicystic dysplastic kidney disease is usually the result of: a. autosomal recessive genetic disorder b. autosomal dominant genetic disorder c. an obstruction of the ureteropelvic junction in utero d. chronic urinary tract infections as a child
c
69
Which of the following renal tumors is a hypoechoic mass most commonly found in the renal pelvis? a. oncocytoma b. adenoma c. transitional cell carcinoma d. renal cell carcinoma
c
70
Acute occlusion of the main renal artery typically causes __ acute renal failure. a. extrinsic b. postrenal c. prerenal d. intrinsic
c
71
A patient presents for a renal ultrasound due to a recent diagnosis of staphylococcus aureus infection, right flank pain, and microscopic hematuria. The chart states the referring physician suspects a renal carbuncle has formed. How will this abnormality be identified sonographically? a. a single large calculus obstructing the renal pelvis with severe hydronephrosis b. a hyperechoic mass of fibrous tissue replaces the tissues of the renal sinus causing significant outflow obstruction c. 1.5 cm complex mass with ring down and dirty shadowing located within the renal parenchyma d. 1.5cm complex mass located within the renal pelvis that is causing renal vein thrombosis
c
72
Which of the following describes a tardus parvus waveform? a. low velocity with late systolic peak b. high velocity with sharp peak c. low velocity with diastolic flow reversal d. high velocity with diastolic flow reversal
a
73
Which of the following correctly describes the typical sonographic appearance of renal lymphoma? a. unilateral renal atrophy b. bilateral renal enlargement c. bilateral renal atrophy with renal failure d. unilateral renal enlargement
b
74
__ is the most common renal tumor in neonates, while __ is the most common renal tumor in pediatric patients. a. mesoblastic nephroma, nephroblastoma b. mesoblastric nephroma, angiomyolipoma c. nephroblastoma, mesoblastic nephroma d. nephroblastoma, neuroblastoma
a
75
Which of the following Doppler findings is most suggestive of partial testicular torsion? a. increased diastolic flow velocities with a very low resistive index on the affected side b. asymmetric resistive indices on the intratesticular Doppler evaluations c. increased diastolic flow velocities with a very high resistive index on the affected side d. antegrade flow throughout the cardiac cycle
b
76
Which of the following typically presents in men over 60 years with bilateral hypoechoic, solid masses within the testicular parenchyma? a. choriocarcinoma b. lymphoma c. seminoma d. orchitis
b
77
Which of the following is true regarding hydrocele formation? a. accumulation of serous fluid between the two layers of the tunica vaginalis b. most common cause of acute scrotal pain c. most hydroceles are due to infection d. usually contains mucinous fluid
a
78
The bell clapper deformity is a predisposing factor for testicular torsion. It is defined as: a. the tunica albuginea completely encircles the epididymis, distal spermatic cord, and testis b. the testicles are connected by thick dermal tissue and cannot move separately c. the tunica vaginalis completely encircles the epididymis, distal spermatic cord, and testis d. the epididymis floating freely in the scrotal sac
c
79
Which testicular tumor will cause b-hCG levels to rise but AFP levels will be normal? a. embryonal cell carcinoma b. choriocarcinoma c. yolk sac tumor d. epidermoid cyst
b
80
The most common extra-testicular neoplasm is: a. AV malformation b. Hamartoma c. Lipoma d. Adenomatoid tumor
d
81
The most common cause of acute scrotal pain in postpubertal men is: a. hydrocele b. orchitis c. torsion d. acute epididymitis
d
82
Which testicular tumor is composed of bone, cartilage, and smooth muscle fibers? a. seminoma b. yolk sac tumor c. choriocarcinoma d. teratoma
d
83
Which of the following are associated with an increased risk of thyroid malignancy? a. psammoma bodies and intranodular flow patterns b. prominent halo around mass and intranodular flow patterns c. wider than tall mass orientation and intranodular cystic changes d. prominent halo around mass and intranodular cystic changes
a
84
What technique can be used to differentiate a seminoma and an adenomatoid tumor? a. apply gentle transducer pressure to the affected testicle b. scan the patient in the Trendelenburg position c. scan the patient in the standing position d. ask the patient to perform the Valsalva maneuver
a
85
Which type of thyroid cancer is most lethal? a. follicular b. anaplastic c. papillary d. medullary
b
86
A patient presents with an acute onset of left scrotal pain this morning. The US exam demonstrates a small hydrocele and an enlarged body and tail of the epididymis. There is very minimal flow demonstrated in the body and tail but the head appears normal. These findings are most suggestive of: a. focal epididiymitis of the body and tail b. torsion of the epididymal body c. sperm granuloma d. focal epididymitis of the head
b
87
A patient presents with an enlarged left scrotum and palpable mass. The US demonstrates an intratesticular mass that is hypoechoic and heterogeneous with multiple coarse calcifications. There is also an irregular central cystic area. These findings are most suggestive of: a. teratoma only b. seminoma only c. embryonal cell tumor or teratoma d. seminoma, embryonal cell tumor or teratoma
c
88
Gonadal stromal tumors should be suspected in a patient with a painless testicular mass and: a. scrotal varicosities b. elevated AFP levels c. gynecomastia d. hematuria
c
89
Which of the following is an intratesticular mass associated with Cushing syndrome and adrenal hyperplasia? a. yolk sac tumor b. mixed germ cell tumor c. epidermoid cyst d. adrenal rest
d
90
A solid nodule in the left lobe of the thyroid that measures 2cm AP and 1cm width is most suggestive of: a. papillary carcinoma b. adenoma c. anaplastic carcinoma d. colloid cyst
a
91
Which of the following correctly describes how to aid in differentiation of a thyroid adenoma in the lower pole from a parathyroid adenoma? a. thyroid adenomas are hyperechoic and parathyroid adenomas are hypoechoic b. thyroid adenomas are hypoechoic and parathyroid adenomas are hyperechoic c. thyroid adenomas are homogeneous and parathyroid adenomas are heterogeneous d. thyroid adenomas are hypovascular and parathyroid adenomas are hypervascular
d
92
Which of the following is not a medication that can be used to treat patients with hypothyroidism? a. iodine supplements b. iron supplements c. levothyroxine d. Coumadin
d
93
Zenker diverticulum can be mistaken for: a. a thyroid mass b. a dilated bile duct c. the appendix d. a bowel obstruction
a
94
Bacterial orchitis is most commonly caused by __, while viral orchitis is most commonly caused by ___. a. sexually transmitted disease, mumps b. recent vasectomy, sexually transmitted disease c. trauma, recent vasectomy d. trauma, HIV
a
95
Which of the following Doppler findings is most consistent with uncomplicated epididymo-orchitis? a. low resistance flow; resistive index 0.4 b. low resistance flow; resistive index 0.8 c. high resistance flow; resistive index 1.0 d. high resistance flow; resistive index 0.2
a
96
Which of the following is the most commonly occurring germ cell tumor of the testicle? a. embryonal cell tumor b. teratoma c. seminoma d. choriocarcinoma
c
97
Which of the following statements describes the appearance of a testicular prosthetic on the US image? a. round structure with reflective borders and an anechoic lumen b. homogeneous, hypoechoic structure with sound attenuation posteriorly causing decreased visibility of the posterior borders of the prosthesis c. solid, round structure with homogeneous, hypoechoic texture compared to the native teste d. solid, oblong structure with homogenous, hypoechoic texture compared to the native teste.
a
98
A patient presents with a fever, fatigue, hoarseness, and a painful thyroid on clinical examination. The lab test results indicate low levels of thyroid stimulating hormone and high levels of T3 and T4. These findings are most suggestive of: a. Graves disease b. Hashimoto thyroiditis c. Sjrogen disease d. De Quervian thyroiditis
d
99
Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid is a common occurrence with: a. MEN syndrome b. Von Hippel Lindau syndrome c. Marfan syndrome d. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
a
100
A benign thyroid adenoma is associated with __ calcification(s), while malignant adenomas are associated with __ calcification(s). a. punctate, coarse b. punctate, fine c. large, coarse d. eggshell, punctate
d