URR 82 Flashcards by Billie Harney

Which of the following vessels are a common source for a Type II endoleak?
a. common iliac artery and gonadal arteries
b. inferior mesenteric artery and lumbar arteries
c. left gastric artery and right hepatic artery
d. celiac axis and superior mesenteric artery

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The most common location of ectopic thyroid tissue formation outside the neck is in the ___.
a. base of skull
b. shoulder
c. chest
d. groin

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Primary testicular carcinoma is usually ___ and secondary testicular malignancy is usually ___.
a. heterogeneous, isoechoic
b. hypoechoic, isoechoic
c. unilateral, bilateral
d. hypervascular, hypovascular

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Which of the following correctly describes papillary thyroid cancer?
a. most commonly presents as a hypoechoic mass with calcifications
b. has a very high mortality rate
c. associated with colloid cyst formation
d. most masses are complex cysts with thick septations and nodule formation

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Which of the following correctly describes a difference between De Quervain and Hashimoto thyroiditis?
a. De Quervain thyroiditis is considered painless, Hashimoto thyroiditis causes a painful, tender neck
b. De Quervain thyroiditis is a much more common cause of hypothyroidism than Hashimoto thyroiditis
c. De Quervain thyroiditis has no effect on TSH levels, Hashimoto thyroiditis causes a significant decrease in TSH levels
d. De Quervain thyroiditis is caused by a virus, Hashimoto thyroiditis is caused by bacteria

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Which of the following statements best describes the Doppler tracing found in the stalk of a pseudoaneurysm?
a. phasic forward flow
b. continuous forward flow
c. high resistance to and fro flow
d. low resistance to and fro flow

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Increased thyroid volume is associated with:
a. thyroxine treatment
b. chronic renal failure
c. chronic hepatitis
d. radioactive iodine treatment

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A right adrenal mass will displace the IVC:
a. anteriorly
b. superiorly
c. inferiorly
d. posteriorly

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All of the following are risk factors for thyroid cancer, except:
a. diagnosis of multiple endocrine neoplasm (MEN) syndrome
b. personal history of radiation treatment of a cerebral malignancy
c. family history of hypercalcemia
d. personal history of previous papillary cancer

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A patient presents for their annual screening ultrasound after a complete thyroidectomy due to papillary carcinoma. You identify a 1cm uniformly hypoechoic mass lateral to the trachea. The mass is painful with transducer pressure and pain radiates to the head and chest. These findings are most suggestive of:
a. parathyroid adenoma
b. parathyroid carcinoma
c. post-traumatic neuroma
d. abnormal lymph node

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The halo sign is a sonographic characteristic of what thyroid abnormality?
a. adenoma
b. papillary carcinoma
c. complex cyst
d. germ cell tumor

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Regarding the aorta, fusiform aneurysm formation usually occurs in the __ while dissecting aneurysms usually occur in the __.
a. distal abdominal aorta, thoracic aorta
b. proximal abdominal aorta, thoracic aorta
c. aortic arch, distal abdominal aorta
d. distal abdominal aorta, aortic arch

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Which of the following statements best describes the appearance of color Doppler evaluation of a testicular abscess?
a. there will be no color flow demonstrated centrally with increased color flow displayed around the periphery of the abscess
b. due to fluid accumulation with inflammation, color Doppler does not usually demonstrate flow around or within an abscess
c. there will be a significant increase in vascularity within the abscess due to inflammation
d. there will be focal areas of increased vascularity in the central abscess and limited color flow demonstrated at the periphery of the abscess

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Hashimoto disease is the most common type of ___ and leads to ___.
a. hyperthyroidism, diffuse enlargement of the gland
b. hypothyroidism, nodule formation
c. hypothyroidism, diffuse enlargement of the gland
d. hyperthyroidism, goiter formation

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Median arcuate ligament syndrome involves compression of which vessel during respiration?
a. main portal vein
b. superior mesenteric artery
c. inferior mesenteric artery
d. celiac axis

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A patient with a seminoma of the left testicle will usually be treated by __, while a patient with a non-seminomatous tumor of the left testicle will usually be treated by ___.
a. chemotherapy, radiation therapy
b. unilateral orchiectomy, radiation therapy and unilateral orchiectomy
c. unilateral orchiectomy and chemotherapy, unilateral orchiectomy
d. bilateral orchiectomy, unilateral orchiectomy

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Which of the following describes tubular ectasia of the rete testis?
a. bilateral and has a strong association with malignant transformation
b. bilateral and associated with spermatocele formation
c. unilateral and associated with chronic bacterial infection
d. unilateral and associated with gynecomastia

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A 30 year old male presents with fever, malaise, and mild to moderate right scrotal pain that began 3 days ago. Lab results indicate leukocytosis is present. The right testicle demonstrates mild diffuse heterogeneity. PW doppler evaluation of the affected side produces a waveform with peaked antegrade systolic flow and diastolic flow reversal. These findings are most suggestive of:
a. partial torsion
b. uncomplicated acute orchitis
c. testicular rupture
d. acute orchitis with venous infarction

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Retrograde flow in the common hepatic artery and splenic artery is highly suggestive of:
a. mesenteric ischemia
b. SMA occlusion
c. celiac artery occlusion
d. portal HTN

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__ artery aneurysms are commonly associated with pancreatitis and peptic ulcer disease, while __ artery aneurysms are usually caused by cystic medial necrosis.
a. splenic, superior mesenteric
b. celiac, hepatic
c. celiac, superior mesenteric
d. hepatic, splenic

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Which of the following vessels follows a retroaortic course in the abdomen?
a. left renal artery
b. portal confluence
c. right renal artery
d. none of the above

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Which renal arterial branches are preferred for accurate assessment of parenchymal resistance?
a. interlobar or arcuate arteries
b. segmental or arcuate arteries
c. intralobular or segmental arteries
d. segmental or interlobar arteries

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Which structure is most posterior at the renal hilum?
a. ureter
b. vein
c. artery

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The cup-like or funnel shaped extensions of the renal sinus that originate at the papilla and collect urine that is coursing toward the renal pelvis are:
a. pyramids
b. minor calyces
c. major calyces
d. cortex

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The superior mesenteric artery originates from the aorta approximately __ below the celiac axis and posterior to the ___. a. 1-2 cm, stomach and duodenum b. 2-3 cm stomach and duodenum c. 1-2 cm, body of the pancreas d. 2-3 cm, body of the pancreas

The IVC and SVC empty their blood into the __. a. right ventricle b. left ventricle c. left atrium d. right atrium

The quadratus lumborum muscle is __ to the kidney. a. anterior b. posterior c. lateral d. medial

A portion of the following structures are visualized posterior to the kidney, except: a. diaphragm b. psoas muscle c. levator ani muscle d. quadratus lumborum muscle

The ___ arteries are the vessels that course perpendicular to the renal capsule within the outer renal parenchyma. a. segmental b. arcuate c. interlobular d. interlobar

The splenic artery courses across the __ surface of the pancreas. a. anterior inferior b. posterior superior c. posterior inferior d. none of the above

The splenic vein is located: a. anterior to the pancreas b. anterior to the SMA c. posterior to the SMA d. posterior to the portal vein

Autoregulation of the systemic blood pressure refers to: a. the renin-angiotensin system that controls the glomerular filtration rate of the kidneys and systemic BP level b. the release of norepinephrine to cause constriction of the convoluted tubules c. the release of epinephrine to cause constriction of the convoluted tubules d. the renin-angiotensin system that controls the level of constriction of the convoluted tubules

The ___ arteries are the vessels that course between the renal pyramids. a. segmental b. lobular c. arcuate d. interlobar

Which of the following vessels follow a retrocaval course in the abdomen? a. portal confluence b. superior mesenteric artery c. left renal artery d. right renal artery

Which of the following structures lies posterior to the diaphragm crura? a. IVC b. Aorta c. Celiac axis d. aorta and IVC

The kidneys release renin to stimulate the release of: a. angiotensin to counteract low blood pressure b. anti-diuretic to counteract high blood pressure c. anti-diuretic hormone to counteract low blood pressure d. angiotensin to counteract high blood pressure

The psoas muscle is __ to the kidney. a. anterolateral b. posterolateral c. posteromedial d. anteromedial

Which structure is most anterior at the renal hilum? a. ureter b. artery c. vein

The proximal superior mesenteric vein is normally located __ the proximal superior mesenteric artery in the abdomen. a. superior to b. to the right of c. to the left of d. posterior to

How is the renal cortex measured correctly? a. cortical thickness is always reported from just the right kidney because it is typically thicker than the left kidney b. cortical thickness should be measured in the transverse view of the kidney c. Calipers are placed on the peak of the pyramid to the outer edge of the parenchyma d. calipers are placed on the base of the pyramid to the outer edge of the parenchyma

The left common carotid artery is a branch of which artery? a. aortic arch b. left subclavian artery c. left vertebral artery d. left innominate artery

Which portion of the bladder is in direct contact with the anterior vaginal wall/prostate? a. apex b. base c. fundus d. dome

Hutch diverticula are identified in the: a. gallbladder b. urinary bladder c. small bowel d. large bowel

The inferior mesenteric vein empties into the: a. main portal vein b. left gastric vein c. splenic vein d. superior mesenteric vein

Which of the following lists the branches in the correct order that they originate from the aortic arch? a. right subclavian, right carotid, left innominate b. right innominate, left carotid, left innominate c. innominate, left carotid, left subclavian d. innominate, right carotid, left subclavian

The term "splanchnic arteries" describes which of the following vessels? a. celiac, SMA and IMA b. hepatic, renal, splenic, and celiac arteries c. renal, suprarenal, splenic, and gastric arteries d. all arterial branches of the abdominal aorta from the diaphragm to the umbilicus

The renal cortex contains which of the following? a. Bowman capsule b. Loops of Henle c. Calyces d. Pyramids

Which of the following is most commonly associated with an autosplenectomy? a. wandering spleen b. splenic hamartoma c. sickle cell anemia d. splenic lymphoma

Which of the following correctly describes Non-Hodgkin lymphoma? a. usually affects the retroaortic and pelvic lymph nodes first b. much less responsive to treatment than Hodgkin type c. more commonly affects lymph nodes in the arms, upper chest, and neck d. average patient age 20yrs

Tuberculosis and __ will demonstrate similar ultrasound findings in the spleen. a. infarction b. hamartoma c. hemangioma d. sarcoidosis

Which of the following describes the sonographic appearance of the pancreas with chronic cystic fibrosis? a. increased size with nodule and calcification formation b. increased size with mottled echogenicity, no definite nodules c. decreased size and increased overall echogenicity d. decreased size with hypoechoic nodularity throughout the gland

Splenic vein thrombosis is a common finding in patients with: a. splenic infarct b. chronic pancreatitis c. pancreatic divisum d. splenic hemangioma

A patient presents for an abdominal ultrasound due to a history of elevated amylase. She was diagnosed 5 years ago with Von Hippel Lindau syndrome. You identify a round, lobulated mass with numerous small cysts in the body of the pancreas. Mild posterior enhancement is present. These findings are most suggestive of: a. Sphincter of Oddi carcinoma b. microcystic cystadenoma c. adenocarcinoma d. pseudocyst

A splenic __ is a cartilaginous tumor. a. chondroma b. fibroma c. hamartoma d. osteoma

Spontaneous splenic rupture is associated with all of the following, except: a. mononucleosis b. HIV c. trauma d. splenosis

A patient presents with a recent diagnosis of lymphoma. Which of the following is an expected finding on the ultrasound? a. multiple solid tumors are present causing marked increase in spleen size b. mildly enlarged spleen due to fluid accumulation c. multiple splenic varices at the hilum d. solitary hyperechoic mass with peripheral hypervascularity

__ refers to a rare genetic disorder characterized by visceral cysts, renal and pancreatic cysts, benign masses, and the potential for malignant transformation in multiple organ systems. a. Polycystic Disease b. Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome c. Edwards syndrome d. Von Hippel Lindau syndrome

A fluid collection between the diaphragm and splenic capsule may represent: a. subphrenic abscess b. subcapsular hematoma c. pericardial effusion d. pleural effusion

Which of the following describes the sonographic appearance of acute pancreatic allograft rejection? a. small atrophied gland with numerous calcifications within the parenchyma b. small atrophied gland with numerous cysts within the parechyma c. high resistance flow in transplant arteries and heterogeneous appearance of the gland d. high resistance flow in the transplant arteries with numerous calcifications within the parenchyma

The bright band sign is a characteristic of: a. rectus abdominis hematoma b. biliary tree dilatation c. splenic infarction d. hepatitis

A patient presents for a post-transplant evaluation of the pancreas. Where is the most common location for the allograft? a. right iliac fossa b. epigastric area c. periumbilical area d. left lower quadrant

Which of the following is considered a direct sign of pancreatic adenocarcinoma? a. palpable gallbladder b. liver metastasis c. biliary ductal dilatation d. hypoechoic mass in the pancreatic head

A pseudocyst most commonly forms in which retroperitoneal space? a. omental bursa b. posterior pararenal space c. anterior pararenal space d. perinephric space

What causes pseudopancreatitis? a. fatty liver b. polycystic liver disease c. hepatitis d. cholecystitis

Which of the following is commonly associated with pancreatitis? a. high protein diet b. low fat diet c. pancreatic divisum d. annular pancreas

Asplenia is associated with all of the following, except: a. liver on the right, gallbladder on the left b. aorta on the right side of the body c. congenital heart defects d. absence of the spleen

Which of the following are vascular complications seen with pancreatitis? a. portal hypertension and biliary strictures b. progression of Budd Chiari syndrome and the development of congestive heart failure c. thrombosis of the splenic vein or pseudoaneurysm of the splenic artery d. cholecystitis and phlegmon formation

What is the Asher sign suggestive of? a. splenomegaly b. acute pancreatitis c. tumoral invasion of the splenic vein d. pancreatic malignancy

A 56 year old male presents with epigastric pain, nausea, and a chronic history of alcoholism. Lab values demonstrate increased levels of amylase and lipase. Hematocrit levels are below normal values. The US exam demonstrates a hypoechoic, enlarged pancreas with periglandular fluid. Which of the following best describes the findings? a. hemorrhagic pancreatitis b. chronic pancreatitis c. phlegmon d. acute pancreatitis

The double duct sign refers to the dilatation of: a. right and left hepatic ducts b. the common bile duct and the duct of Wirsung c. the common bile duct and cystic duct d. the main pancreatic duct and accessory pancreatic duct

Which of the following is a common cause of a splenic abscess? a. cholecystitis b. endocarditis c. Gaucher disease d. portal HTN

Biliary atresia and congenital absence of the gallbladder are associated with which complex congenital defect? a. asplenia b. pancreas divisum c. polysplenia d. annular pancreas

Splenic vein thrombosis and splenic artery pseudoaneurysm formation are vascular complications most often seen with: a. renal artery stenosis b. cirrhosis c. pancreatitis d. Zollinger Ellison syndrome

Which of the following is most commonly found in the pancreatic body or tail and secretes hormones? a. islet cell tumor b. microcystic cystadenoma c. macrocystic cystadenoma d. pseudocyst

A patient presents with a history of fever and vomiting with increased serum levels of amylase and lipase. While scanning the abdomen you note a complicated cyst in the anterior pararenal space on the left side. These findings are most consistent with: a. pancreatic pseudocyst b. splenic varices c. splenic anuerysm d. GI tract mass

Which of the following is an expected finding with asplenia? a. liver on the right, gallbladder on the left b. second IVC on the left side of the body c. presence of multiple spleens d. aorta on the left side of the body

Which of the following patients would most likely demonstrate a 10 cm spleen with homogeneous echotexture? a. 30 yr female with lymphoma b. 65 yr old female with mononucleiosis c. 5'10" 250lb male with homozygous sickle cell anemia d. 50yr old with a splenic artery aneurysm

Splenosis is a complication of: a. sickle cell anemia b. portal HTN c. splenic trauma d. splenic infection

A vascular condition of the liver seen in women who take oral contraceptives is: a. Hereditary telengiectasia b. portal aneurysm c. portal venous gas d. Budd Chiari syndrome

Which of the following describes the expected waveform from the hepatic vein in a patient with cirrhosis? a. monophasic, continuous antegrade flow b. triphasic antegrade flow without cardiac pulsatility c. monophasic, continuous retrograde flow d. triphasic, highly pulsatile antegrade flow

Which of the following is the most common cause for intrahepatic cholestasis? a. stone in the distal CBD b. pancreatic head mass c. hepatitis d. fatty infiltration of the liver

Which of the following describes the most common sonographic appearance of hepatoma? a. solid mass that may be more or less echogenic that liver parencyhma b. usually causes multiple diffuse solid mass formation c. most commonly demonstrates diffuse coarse liver texture in the affected lobe d. echogenic mass with central scar

A __ abscess is caused by bacteria and most commonly forms within the right lobe of the liver. A __ abscess is caused by a parasite and usually forms in the right dome of the liver causing elevation of the diaphragm. a. pyogenic, amebic b. parasitic, fungal c. fungal, pyogenic d. amebic, pyogenic

What condition is associated with prominent portal walls? a. acute viral hepatitis b. cirrhosis c. fatty infiltration d. hemangioma

A patient presents with lower extremity edema and increased abdominal girth 2 weeks after a liver transplant. These findings are most suggestive of what complication? a. hepatic artery stenosis b. hepatic vein stenosis c. cholangitis d. biliary stricture

What liver complication is associated with cholangitis, diverticulitis, and osteomyelitis? a. metastasis b. fungal abscess c. pyogenic abscess d. steatosis

The Ultrasound Liver Imaging Reporting and Data System (US LI-RADS) is used to assess patients at risk for: a. lymphoma b. liver metastasis c. hepatocellular carcinoma d. cirrhosis

Which of the following correctly describes how to differentiate a liver hemangioma from focal fatty infiltration? a. hemangiomas are always identified in the right lobe, while focal fatty infiltration always occurs at the porta hepatis b. there are no distinguishing Sonographic characteristics between liver hemangiomas and focal fatty infiltration c. hemangiomas demonstrate internal vascularity, while focal fatty infiltration demonstrates peripheral vascularity d. hemangiomas can compress or displace surrounding structures, fatty infiltration has no mass effect

If tardus parvus waveforms are identified in the intrahepatic artery waveforms of a transplant, this finding is __. If biphasic waveforms are identified in the right and left hepatic arteries, the finding is ___. a. suspicious for hepatic artery stenosis, suspicious for organ rejection b. suspicious for organ rejection, suspicious for hepatic artery stenosis c. normal, suspicious for hepatic artery stenosis d. suspicious for hepatic artery stenosis, normal

Which of the following vessels will be abnormally dilated with significant portal HTN? a. main portal vein only b. hepatic veins only c. main portal vein and left gastric vein d. hepatic veins, main portal vein, and left gastric vein

Which of the following is a potential collateral pathway formed in patients with cirrhosis? a. blood moves from the superior rectal vein to the middle rectal vein b. blood moves from the emissary veins to the umbilical vein c. blood moves from the gastric vein to the splenic vein d. blood moves from the splenic vein to the coronary vein

A patient is scheduled for abdominal ultrasound every six months due to their history of cirrhosis. What is the primary reason for these serial exams? a. increased risk of tumor invasion of the portal vein from metastatic lesions b. evaluate for the development of an abscess c. evaluate for pleural effusion d. increased risk of portal thrombosis

In a patient with cirrhosis, the __ lobe of the liver can enlarge to nearly half the size of the right lobe. a. left b. caudate c. quadrate d. none of the above, the entire liver shrinks in size with cirrhosis

The diameter of the __ will be relatively unaffected by hepatic congestion. a. main portal vein b. right hepatic vein c. left hepatic vein d. hepatic artery

The most definitive sonographic sign of cirrhosis is: a. hepatoma formation b. portal HTN c. decreased liver size with coarse texture and nodule formation d. associated hepatomegaly

Liver elastography is used for: a. staging of fibrosis b. staging of steatosis c. staging of primary malignancy d. staging of secondary malignancy

A patient presents with abdominal pain for 3 months following a missionary trip to India. Lab values demonstrate normal LFTs. The US exam demonstrates a 3cm cyst with septations in the right lobe of the liver. These findings are most consistent with: a. schistosomiasis b. histoplasmosis infection c. candidiasis d. hydatid disease

What is the most common cause of a hepatic abscess in the US? a. cholangitis and cholecystitis b. osteomyelitis and endocarditis c. appendicitis and diverticulitis d. E. coli from digestive tract

Benign liver masses will usually demonstrate ultrasound contrast enhancement during the arterial and portal venous phases of imaging. Malignant masses will usually demonstrate: a. contrast enhancement during the arterial and portal venous phases of imaging b. contrast enhancement during portal venous phase of imaging c. contrast enhancement during the arterial phase of imaging d. no contrast enhancement

What type of liver infection/abscess is commonly associated with immunocompromised patients? a. amebic b. pyogenic c. schistosomiasis d. candidiasis

URR 82 Flashcards

(100 cards)