Hem/ Onc High Yield Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Hem/ Onc High Yield Deck (52):
1

Anisocytosis?

varying size RBC

2

Life span of RBC?

120 days

3

Piokilocytosis?

varing shape RBC

4

What are platelets derived from?

megakaryocytes

5

Life span of thrombocyte/ platlet?

8- 10 days

6

What is the vWF receptor on platelets?

GpIb

7

What is the fibrinogen receptor on platelets?

GpIIb/ IIIa

8

Where are 1/3 of all platelets stored?

Spleen

9

Name the 4 substances in the granules of platelets?

1- ADP
2- Ca2+
3- vWF
4- Fibrinogen

10

"acute inflammatory response cell"

neutrophil

11

What is in the specific granules of neutrophils? (4)

1- ALP
2- collagenase
3- lysozyme
4- lactoferrin

12

What is in the azurophilic granules of neutrophils? (4)

1- proteinases
2- acid phosphatase
3- myeloperoxidase
4- Beta glucuronidase

13

What are 4 MAJOR chemotactic agents for neutrophils?

1- C5a
2- IL-8
3- LTB4
4- Kallikrein
5- Platelet activating factor

14

What do macrophages come from?

Monocytes! They differentiate once they enter tissue

15

What cytokine activates macrophages?

Gamma interferon

16

How do macrophages participate in Gram (-) septic shock?

Lipid A from LPS binds CD14 on macrophages to initiate septic shock

17

Major function of eosinophils?

Helmith infections and phagocytose antigen- antibody complexes

18

What are the 2 major substances of Eosinophils?

Histamine
Major Basic Protien

19

Which cells mediate allergic reactions?

Basophils, eosinophils and mast cells

20

What are the 2 major substances of basophils?

Heparin
Histamine

21

Basophelia is a sign for what type of cancer?

CML

22

What causes mast cell degranulation?

Cross linking of IgE

23

What type of hypersensitiviet reaction are mast cells associated with?

Type I

24

What asthma treatment prevents the degranulation of mast cells?

Cromolyn sodium

25

"highly phagocytic APCs that functions as a link between innate and adaptive immune systems"

dendritic cells

26

Which lymphocyte is part of the innate immune system?

Natural killer cells

27

Name the cell type:
CD19 + CD20 + CD21

B cell

28

Name the cell type:
CD19 + CD20 + CD21

B cell

29

What part of the spleen can B cells mature?

While pulp

30

Name the Cell type:
CD3 + CD4/8

T cell

31

What is the costimulatory signal needed for T cell activation?

CD28

32

ABO antibodies are Ig?

IgM

33

Rh antibodies are Ig?

IgG

34

What can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn?

Anti-D- IgG from the mom cross the placenta and canse erythroblastosis fetalis int he next Rh+ fetus

35

What does VIIIa activate?

IXa so that it can cleave X

36

What cleaves VIII?

IIa (thrombin)

37

What cleaves V?

IIa (thrombin)

38

Which anticoagulant has the greatest effect on IIa (heparin)?

Heparin

39

What anticoagulant has the highest effect on Xa?

LMWH

40

What factor activates II?

Va and Xa

41

"deficiency of factor VIII (XR)"

Hemophelia A

42

"deficiency of factor IX (XR)"

Hemophelia B

43

"deficiency of factor XI (XR)"

Hemophelia C

44

What factors cleavages require Ca2+?

VII, XIIa, IXa/ VIIIa, Xa/ Va

5, 7-10

45

What enzyme is inhibited by warfarin?

vitamin K epoxide reductase

46

What factors does warfarin interfere with?

I, VII, IX, X, protein C and protein S

47

What enzyme activates plasminogen?

tPA

48

Heparin enhances the activity of ________

antthrombin (which targets Xa and IIa)

49

What is the mutation seen in factor V leiden mutation?

produces a factor V resistant to inhibition by activated protein C

50

What releases vWF?

Weibel- Palade Bodies and alpha granules of platelets

51

Once platelets bind vWF via GpIb what do they release?

ADP, Ca2+ and TXA2

52

What incudes the expression of GpIIb/ IIIa on platelets?

ADP binding platelets

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