Test 72 Flashcards

(58 cards)

1
Q

Trendelenburg gait

A

when the HIP drops down as the IPSILATERAL foot is lifted off the ground

injury to the OCNTRALATERAL superior gluteal nerve (L4-S1 ventral rami)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

injections into WHAT quadrant have a high probability of injuring the superior gluteal nerve>
Trendelenburg gait

A

Superomedial quadant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

safest place for dorsogluteal ijections

A

superolateral quadrant of the buttocks

**MOST injections should target the ANTEROLATERAL gluteal area (von Hochstetter triangle) to minage possibility of nerve damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

heart condition that is considered a normal variant in 20-30% of adults

A

Foramen ovale

Any condition that raises RA pressure above left can produce right to left shunt> hypoxemia and paradoxical embolization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the most likely cause of SVC syndrome

A

mediastinal mass from the intrathoracic spread of BRONCHIOGENIC CARCINOMA>
compression of SVC>
impaired venous return from upper part of body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

dyspnea
facial swelling
dilated collateral veins in upper trunk

A

SVC syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

arise at lung APEX
cause SHOULDER pain d/t compression of brachial plexus
HORNERS syndrome from involvement of cervical ganglia

A

Superior sulcus tumors (Pancoast tumors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Morphine

A

opoid AGONIST
binds to MU opoid receptors

GPCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mechanism of Morphine

A
Morphine>
binds MU>
GPCR>
activation of K channels>
INCREASE in K efflux>
HYPERpolarization of postynaptic neurons and termination of pain transmission
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

inappropriate laughter
increased appetite
slowed reaction time/motor speed
cognitive impairment

A

Marijuana

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

2 most immediate physical sxs of marijuana use

A

Tachycardia (FAST)
conjunctival injection

*increaed appetite
dry mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

opiate intoxication

A

MYOSIS (pinpoint pupils)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cocaine

intoxication/opoid w/drawal

A

Mydriasis (DILATED)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

PCP intoxicatin

A

Nystagmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Transmission parvo B19

A

Respiratory route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mild fevere
discrete maculopapular rash that resolves in 3-5 days
occipital and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy

spreads from head to trunk and extremities

A

Rubella (German measles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
GAS strep infection
Fever
sore throat
diffuse erythematous rash
small papules (sandpaper like)
A

Scarlet fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

affects children 6-15
high fever that lasts 3-5 days that resolves following appearance of maculopapular rash that starts on TRUNK and spreads peripherally

A

roseola infantum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

fever
ulcers on tongue/oral mucosa
vesicular rash on palms and soles

A

hand foot and mouth

Cox A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Acute intermittent porphyria

A

AD disorder of heme synthesis

PBG deaminase def

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
ACUTE onset:
abdominal pain
neurological manifestations
NO photosensitivity
PORTWINE (reddish) colored urine that darkens on expsoure to light
PBG and ALA in urine
A

AIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Tx for AIP

A

intravenous glucose or heme to DOWNREGULATE ALA synthase activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

important for preventing acute attacks of AIP

A

Cyp450 inducers (antieleptics, griseofulvin, sulfonamides, rifampin)

alcohol
smomking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Gradual onset of sxs
cresent shaped mass
elder falls

A

SUBdural hematoma

rupture of cortical bridging veins

25
Recurrent sinopulmonary infections Giardia lamblia gastroenteritis FTT low Ig levels
X linked aggamaglobulinemia
26
Bruton Tyrosine kinase gene mutation> | failure of BONE Marrow pre B cells to develop into circulating B lymphocytes
XLA LOW CD19> increased risk for PYOGENIC (encapsulated) bacteria), Giardia (don't have neutralziaign abs)
27
SE of nitrates
HA | facial flushing
28
``` benign epidermal tumor tan to brown round flat greasy coin like STUCK ON ```
Seborrheic keratosis
29
yellowish macule/papule/plaque | often found on eyelid
Xanthelesma *hyperlipidemia
30
benign pruritic infiltration of the SKIN by MAST cells ``` SCRATCHING of lesions> degranulation of mast cells urticaria flushing syncope ```
mastocytosis
31
polygonal planar pruritic purplish Wickham's striae on plaque surface
Lichen planus
32
thick scaly discoid plaques taht erupt on unexposed scin> scarring
Discoid lupus erythematousus
33
seizure that involves ONE area of the body
partial
34
simple seizure
NO aimpairment of conscoius ness after event
35
complex seizure
LOC
36
tx for simple and complex partial seizures
carbamazepine
37
MOA of carbamazepine
blocks VG Na channels in CORTICAL neurons> INACTIVATES> decreases abnormal AP
38
adverse effects of Carbamazepine
Bone marrow suppression> agranulocytosis (monitor CBC regularly) hepatotoxic increase in ADH> SIADH
39
Blocks T type Ca channels> | decreased Ca current in THALAMIC neurons
Ethosuximide
40
Bilateral acoustic neuromas
AD | NF2 gene on chrom 22
41
``` Neurofibromin chrom 17 cafe au lait spots multiple neurofibromas lisch nodules ```
NF1
42
mutation APC
CRC | FAP
43
mutation RB1 TSG
osteosarcoma | retinoblastoma
44
mutation of VHL on chrom 3
Von Hippel Lindau disease renal cysts RCC hemangioblastomas of cerebellum and retina
45
how do ACE inhibitors cause ACUTE rise in serum Cr and can lead to acute renal failure
BLOCK Angiotensin mediated eff arteriole vasonconstriction> dilated> reduced renal filtration fraction
46
histone 1
OUTSIDE nucleosomem core helps to package nucleosomes int omore COMPACT structures by binding and linking DNA
47
toxins of C. DIFF
``` toxin A (enterotoxin) toxin B (cytotoxin) ``` inactivate RHO regulatory proteins involved in ACTIN CYTOSKELETON maintenance> disruption of INTRACELLUALR TIGHT JUNCTIONS> apoptosis
48
ST elevation and subsequent Q wave formation
Acute transmural MI
49
MCC of acute transmural MI
fully OBSTRUCTIVE thrombus superimposed on a ruptrue datherosclerotic coronary artery plaque
50
lesser occlusion by thrombus superimposed on acute plaque
unstable angina
51
stable stheromatous lesion w/out overlying thrombus but obstructing > 75 of coroanry artery lumen
stable angina
52
acute plaque chagne leading to acute myocardial ischemia>
precipitate v. fib
53
MCC of death in MI pts during prehospital phase
Cardiac arrythmia
54
MCC of death during hte IN hospital phase
ventricular failure
55
aschoff bodies
Acute rheumatic carditis interstitial myocardial granulomas (contain plump mphages w/ abundant cytoplasm and central round-ovoid nuclei w/ central slender ribbons of chromatin)
56
lymphcytic interstitial inflammatory infiltrate w/ focal necrosis of myocytes
viral myocarditis
57
recent travel to Latin america distension of individual myofibers w/ intracellular trypansomes
Chagas disease
58
pleomorphic interstitial infiltrate of mphages w//out distinct aschoff body type granulomas
diptehritic myocarditis