GI And Surg H&S Flashcards

(38 cards)

1
Q

When do cervical cancer screening invitations begin?

A

6 months before age 25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How often is cervical cancer screening conducted for individuals aged 25-49?

A

Every 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

At what age does cervical cancer screening occur every 5 years?

A

50-64 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Under what condition does cervical screening occur for individuals aged 65 and older?

A

If a recent test was abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Should individuals who have had a total hysterectomy undergo cervical screening?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the age range for bowel screening and how often does it occur?

A

54 to 74 years old every 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When does breast screening first occur and until what age is it conducted?

A

Between ages 50-53 until age 71

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the protocol for individuals with gene mutations regarding breast cancer screening?

A

Yearly MRI scans for specific ages depending on mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the ages for yearly MRI scans for TP53 and BRCA1/BRCA2 mutations?

A

Age 20 for TP53, Age 30 for BRCA1 and BRCA2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the triple assessment used for in breast cancer screening?

A

Examination + mammogram + ultrasound with or without biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the sensitivity and specificity of digital mammography?

A

Sensitivity of 97%, Specificity of 64.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

True or False: Digital mammography is good at ruling out breast cancer.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Who is eligible for breast cancer screening among trans women?

A

Trans women on HRT for longer than 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What constitutes a ‘never event’ in medical practice?

A

Wrong site surgery, wrong implant placement, retained foreign object, mis-selection of medication, overdose situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are never events specific to mental health?

A

Failure to install functional collapsible shower curtains or rails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are general never events in healthcare?

A

Patient falls, chest or neck entrapment, transfusions with incompatible blood, misplaced tubes, scalding, unintentional oxygen connection

17
Q

What does inadequate follow-up after an abnormal mammogram include?

A

*Failure to undergo complete follow-up to diagnostic resolution
*Failure to attend recommended follow-up

18
Q

What factors influence mammogram follow-up?

A

*Electronic health record
*Coordination between healthcare services
*Lack of reminders
*Access to patient data

19
Q

Why is written documentation important in healthcare?

A

*Shows reasoning for clinical judgement
*Enables understanding of patient’s situation
*Documents timeline of patient’s journey
*Covers backs of doctors

20
Q

What are exceptional circumstances where oral consent may be relied upon?

A

*Patient is unconscious and needs urgent procedures
*Not possible to find out patient’s wishes
*Least restrictive of patient’s future choices

21
Q

According to GMC 46, when is oral or implied consent usually sufficient?

A

For minor or routine investigations or treatments

22
Q

What is the aim of the WHO operative checklist?

A

Decrease errors and adverse events and increase teamwork and communication in surgery

23
Q

What is the structure of a Multidisciplinary Team (MDT) in cancer care?

A

*Core: medical staff (physician, oncologist, radiologist, histopathologist), specialist nurse, MDT coordinator
*Extended: physio, dietician, palliative care, chaplain

24
Q

What are the key aspects of the UK National Screening Committee’s criteria for a good screening test?

A

*Condition: Important health problem, understood epidemiology, detectable RF/marker
*Test: Simple, safe, validated
*Treatment: Evidence-based, effective
*Programme: RCT evidence of effectiveness

25
What are the major avoidable risks for chronic liver disease?
*Excess alcohol intake *Recreational drug use *Chronic viral hepatitis *Metabolic syndrome *Paracetamol overdose
26
What approaches are recommended for preventing liver disease?
*Healthy diet and exercise *Decrease alcohol intake *Provision of clean needles *Vaccinations *Better control of HBP and diabetes *Regular LFTs
27
How do priorities for liver disease prevention vary internationally?
*Infections lead in developing countries *Alcohol and metabolic syndrome lead in developed countries *Different prevention priorities and resources
28
What is the importance of public education in liver disease prevention?
*Television and mass media *Posters *Educating front line staff *Information leaflets *Specialist groups
29
What psychosocial effects can surgery have on patients?
*Body image *Sexual functioning *Concerns about self-care *Fear of stigma from stomas
30
What are the clinical signs of Salmonella infection?
*Enteric fever *Abdominal pain *Enterocolitis
31
What is the incubation period for E.coli O157 H7?
12-48 hours
32
What is the main reservoir for Cryptosporidium?
GIT
33
What is the incubation period for S. aureus food poisoning?
2-4 hours
34
Who needs to take special precautions regarding food poisoning?
*Elderly *Children *Immunocompromised individuals *Pregnant women *Healthcare workers
35
What management strategies are recommended for hospital outbreaks of infective diarrhoea?
*Increase handwashing *Barrier nursing *Restrict ward access *Lift new cases after 72 hours symptom-free
36
What are the implications of Calman-Hine (1995) for patient care?
*Access to uniform care *Recognition of early symptoms *Clear information for patients and families *Patient-centered approach
37
What is the role of cancer units and centers as per Calman-Hine solutions?
*Cancer units treat common cancers and perform diagnostic procedures *Cancer centers treat rare cancers and complex chemotherapy
38
What is the benefit of organizing cancer care with integrated services?
*Holistic care package *Targeting resources effectively *Alliances between providers