Quesmed Gastro Flashcards

(45 cards)

1
Q

What causes metaplasia in lower third of oesophagus?

A

Barrett’s oesophagus

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2
Q

What causes abdominal pain, ascites and hepatomegaly?

A

Budd-chairs syndrome

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3
Q

What causes tender hepatic edge and nausea and vomiting?

A

Inflammation of the liver, with acute hepatitis

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4
Q

What causes lower back pain with ulceration in patient that is elderly and underweight?

A

Malnutrition

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5
Q

Which type of murmur is in carcinoid syndrome?

A

Pulmonary stenosis and tricuspid regurg

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6
Q

What can slow iron absorption?

A

Tannins in tea and coffee and polyphenols in peppermint tea

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7
Q

How is a perforated peptic ulcer diagnosed?

A

Laparotomy

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8
Q

Which IBD has crypt abscesses?

A

Ulcerative colitis

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9
Q

When is arterial pH used in referral in hepatology?

A

Only for paracetamol induced liver transplant

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10
Q

What is used in non paracetamol induced liver failure urgent referral?

A

Age under 10 years or over 40 years, 1 week from jaundice to encephalopathy, PT >50 seconds or bilirubin ≥300 μmol/L.

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11
Q

What to give actively bleeding patients awaiting endoscopy?

A

Fresh frozen plasma if PT is over 1.5 normal limit

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12
Q

What is the most common site of carcinoid tumours?

A

Appendix

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13
Q

What are the alternative sites of carcinoid tumour?

A

Ileum, rectum and testis

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14
Q

Which antiemetic is given for gastroparesis?

A

Metaclopramide

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15
Q

Which groups are at risk of listeriai?

A

From dairy products in immunosuppressed patients like elderly, pregnant women

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16
Q

Which sense is affected in coeliac disease?

A

Night blindness because of vitamin A malabsorption

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17
Q

What is given for autoimmune hepatitis?

A

Prednisolone

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18
Q

Which diabetic drug causes diarrhoea?

A

Metformin because of bile acid malabsorption

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19
Q

What does increased echogenicity of Liver mean?

20
Q

What is the endoscopic surveillance for Barrett’s without dysplasia?

21
Q

What is the endoscopic surveillance for Barrett’s with dysplasia?

22
Q

What causes eosinophilic deposits in liver?

A

Drug induced hepatitis

23
Q

What causes granulomatous in bile ducts?

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis

24
Q

What IBD causes palpable bowel loops?

A

Crohn’s disease

25
How should bisphosphonates be taken?
Full glass of water on empty stomach and stand for at least 30 minutes after taking
26
What are the indications for TIPPS?
Refractory ascites to reduce portal hypertension
27
Which antiemetic must be avoided in Parkinson’s?
Metaclopramide
28
What is the maintenance for alcohol abstinence?
Acamprosate
29
What causes flattening of mucosa of duodenum and scalloping of folds?
Coeliac disease
30
What drink increases iron absorption?
Orange juice, ideal for haemochromatosis
31
What is the criteria for the Glasgow score?
Glasgow Score - each of the following scores 1 point and a score of 3 or more predicts severe pancreatitis: * PaO2 < 8kPa * Age > 55 years * Neutrophils > 15 * Calcium < 2 * Renal i.e. Urea > 16 * Enzymes i.e. LDH > 600 or AST > 200 * Albumin < 32 * Sugar i.e. Glucose > 10 This should be calculated on admission and at 48 hours
32
What to do for Glasgow score of more than 3?
Transfer to ICU for intensive monitoring and aggressive fluid resuscitation
33
What does rice water stool indicate?
Vibrio cholerae which is treated with doxycycline
34
What is the treatment of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?
Ceftriaxone, Cefotaxime, or Ciprofloxacin
35
In addition to bloody stools, what is essential for moderate flare classification in ulcerative colitis?
Pyrexia or tachycardia
36
What does breast lump with fever and fluid filled mass indicate?
Lactational breast cyst from mastitis, so incise and drain
37
What investigation for epigastric pain that is constant and weight loss?
Endoscopy due to gastric cancer or oesophageal risk.
38
What are the serology tests for coeliac disease?
anti-tTG antibodies or anti-endomysial antibodies, are preferred
39
How does peritoneal carcinoma affect SAAG?
It will be low
40
What is the white cell count for ascites?
White cell count over 650 and neutrophil count over 250
41
What does TIPS increase the risk of?
Diverts blood away from liver parenchyma which reduces breakdown of ammonia, which causes hepatic encephalopathy
42
How is IBD diagnosed during a flare?
Flexible sigmoidoscopy
43
What is the treatment of typhoid fever?
Cefotaxime
44
What does 10 episodes of bloody diarrhoea in 24 hours and dehydration indicate?
Likely campylobacter jejuni infection.
45
How is campylobacter treated?
Severe is treated with clarithromycin