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Year 3 > Passmed Cardio > Flashcards

Passmed Cardio Flashcards

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1
Q

How does renal artery stenosis appear o ultrasound?

A

Asymmetrical kidney

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2
Q

Which scoring system is used for bleeding risk in anticoaguaiton?

A

ORBIT

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3
Q

What is the score for vascular disease in CHADS-VASCULAR?

A

1 point

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4
Q

What is the feature of pulses in coarctation of aorta?

A

Weakened femoral pulses

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5
Q

What does kiss avL sign indicate?

A

Rise of JVP with inspiration due to constrictive pericarditis

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6
Q

What pathology is HOCM associated with?

A

Wolff-Parkinson white

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7
Q

Which drug causes ototoxicity?

A

Loop diuretics

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8
Q

What does radio-femoral delay indicate?

A

Coarctation of aorta

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9
Q

What should be performed if atropinea nd transcutaneous acing is ineffective?

A

Transvenous

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10
Q

What is the ECG sign of electrical alter and?

A

Cardiac tamponade

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11
Q

What does p mitral indicate?

A

Left atrial enlargement na dmitrals tenosis

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12
Q

nausea, abdominal pain, constipation and low mood with generalised musculoskeletal pain and weakness.

A

Hypercalcaemia

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13
Q

Which heart pathology unrelated to conduction relies on synchronised DC?

A

Heart failure

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14
Q

How to manage paroxysmal afib?

A

Anticoagulaion depending on CHADSVASC score

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15
Q

How to treat Torsades?

A

Magnesium sulphate

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16
Q

Which drug increases gout risk?

A

Thiazide diuretic due to reduced uric acid excretion

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17
Q

When to use alpha blocker over spironolactone 3rd line?

A

Potassium level over 4.5

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18
Q

What causes raynaud’s and ischaemia in young male smoker?

A

Thromboxane it is obliterates/raynaud’s

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19
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary hypertension?

A

Priamry hyepraldoeseornism

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20
Q

What is the administration of adenosine?

A

Large calibre vein or central route

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21
Q

What is second line in reduced ejection fraction heart failure?

A

SGLT2 inhibitors

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22
Q

Intracranial haemorrhage on warfarin → give IV vitamin K 5mg + prothrombin complex concentrate

A
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23
Q

What is the presentation of Boerhaave syndrome?

A

vomiting, thoracic pain, subcutaneous emphysema.
There willl be crepitus in the epigastric region
It commonly presents in middle aged men with a background of alcohol abuse

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24
Q

What causes anterior ST elevation months after an MI?

A

Left ventricular aneurysm, which can cause embolisation stroke

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25
What is a significant Wel’s score?
More than 4 points
26
Is thrombolysis required while awaiting PCI transfer?
NO Thrombolysis is an alternative to PCI. You give dual antiplatelet therapy prior to pCI.
27
Which drug should be avoided in pregnancy?
Statins -> especially with macrolide like erythromycin and clarithromycin
28
When to increase statin dose in primary prevention?
If non-HDL has not reduced by 40%
29
What causes intermittent limb claudication with absent or weak peripheral pulses in a young person?
Takayasu’s arthritis affecting inflammation of the aorta. It causes aortic regurgitation, carotid tenderness and headache.
30
Which QRISK score necessitates medication?
Over 10% requires statin, ideally Atorvostatin
31
What should be done with afib and multiple falls?
If significant CHADVASC score of over 2, give anticoaguation but modify for bleeding risk factors
32
What to do for afib over 48 hours?
Discharge on bisoprolol and apixaban and arrange cardioversion in four weeks
33
What to do for anticoagulation following ischaemic stroke?
Wait 2 weeks
34
What to do for anticagoualtion following TIA?
Immediate anticoaguation
35
What is contraindicated in ventiruclar tachycardia?
CCB like verapamil due to risk of cardiac arrest
36
When does SVT cause broad complex tachycardia?
SVT with bundle branch block
37
When are vagal manoeuvres used in broad complex tachycardia?
For SVT with bundle branch block
38
How to differentiate between NSTEMI and opposite lead STEMI?
STEMI can have ST depression on reciprocal lead and no T wave inversion, aside from aVR.
39
Which lead is T wave inversion normal?
AvR
40
What is first line for stroke prevention?
DOAC
41
What is required with heart failure and acute poor renal function?
IV infusion of furosemide because of hypoperfusion of kidneys driving renal decline
42
What can be used to prevent sudden cardiac death in HOCM?
Amiodarone to prevent ventricualr arrythmia
43
When is cardioversion given for afib?
Less than 48 hours AND ischaemia, syncope, heart failure or shock
44
What causes persistent ST evelvaito. With no chest pain after recent MI?
Left ventiruclar aneurysm
45
How does hypercalcaemia hffect ECG?
Shortening of QT interval
46
What is contraindicated in patients with hypotension and ACS?
Nitrates
47
What does flash pulmoanry oedema with mitral regurg indicate?
Myocardial infarction due to acute free wall rupture -> other causes of mitral regurgitation will have a. Slow onset
48
Which ECG signs are seen in PE?
Sinus tachycardia S1Q3T3 sign
49
What history of vomiting induiates hypokalemia?
Prolonged episodes of vomiting
50
Which endocrine disorders causes hypokalemia?
Conn’s Cusing’s disease
51
What is the most common cause of secondary hypertension?
Conn;s syndorme
52
What is thr CXR in PE?
Normal
53
When s D-diner performed?
WEell’s score of 4 or less
54
Which diuretics cause hypokalemia?
Furosemide Thiazide
55
How does left ventirucalr hypertrophy affect ECG?
Deep S waves in V1 and V2 T wave inversion. In V5 and v6 LBBB pattern
56
Which drug has prognostic benefit in heart failure other than ACEi, and spironolactone, beta blockers?
Nitrates and hydralazine
57
What is collapsing pulses a feature of?
Aortic regurg PDA Hyper dynamic state
58
What treatment should be given for catheter ablation?
Anticoagulation depending on CHADS VASC score
59
What is the most important diagnostic inn infective endocarditis?
Blood cultures
60
What to use to reverse bleeding on dabigatran?
Idarucizumab
61
What is first line in afib for asthma in stable over 78 hours?
CCB like diltiazem
62
Which drug causes ototoxicity?
Loop diuretics like bumetanide
63
What is an absolute contraindication to thrombolysis?
Intracranial neoplasm Stroke less than 3 months Recent trauma including dental extraction Recent head injury Aortic dissection Severe hypertension Coagulation disorders
64
What reverses bleeding on dabigatran?
Idarucizumab
65
How should stable patients with CVD be managed on AF?
Stop antiplatelet and switch to oral anticoagulant
66
What does hypothermia cause on ECG?
Long QT interval First degree heart block J wave Bradycardia
67
What does frothy sputum and bilateral pulmonary infiltrates duirig MI indicate?
Pulmonary oedema
68
What causes ejection systolic murmur louder on inspiration?
Atria septal defect
69
What causes ejection systolic murmur radiating to left shoulder?
Pulmoanry stenosis
70
What does NSTEMI management for unstable patients?
Immediate coronary angiography with PCI
71
What does T wave inversion mean?
STEMI
72
What causes widespread systolic murmur, hypotension and pulmonary oedema during MI?
Acute mitral regurg
73
What does grace score over 3% mean?
Offer coronary angiography within 72 hours of admission for STABLE patients
74
What is the drug for patients undergoing fibrinolytic for STEMI”
Fondaparinux
75
What does chest pain with raised ESR following an MI 4 weeks ago indicate?
Dressler’s syndrome
76
Which organism is associated with infective endocarditis 2 months or LESS after valve surgery ?
Staphylococcus epidermidis
77
What to do for patient with afib and CHADS-VASC score is 0?
Arrange echo to exclude valvular heart disease
78
What to do for NSTEMI with GRACE less than 3%?
Aspirin and another antiplatelet. For those not at high risk bleeding, fonadaprinu shouldd be offered
79
Which antiplatelet should be offered for STEMI with high bleeding risk?
Clopidogrel
80
Which antiplatelet should be offered for STEMI with low bleeding risk?
Ticagrelor
81
82
What causes new pansystolic murmur nad acute heart failure a few days after MI?
Ventircular septal defect
83
What is the cause of widespread ST evelation and chest pain and history of metastases?
Pericarditis secondary to malignancy

Year 3 (395 decks)

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