Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Year 3 > Quesmed Cardiology 3 > Flashcards

Quesmed Cardiology 3 Flashcards

(74 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What is the cause of exertional dyspnoea and fatigue with an early diastolic murmur?

A

Aortic regurgitation which is found between the 2nd and 3rd intercostal spaces at the right sternal border which is louder on expiration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why does Malar flush occur?

A

Vasodilation in facial capillaries due to hypoxia from reduced cardiac output and increased pulmonary blood pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How does acute aortic regurgitation present?

A

Sudden cardiovascular collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does chronic aortic regurgitation present?

A

Insidious onset of exertional dyspnoea and fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which groups are at risk of aortic regurgitation?

A

Older populations
Men
Congenital aortic valve like bicuspid aortic valve and Marfan’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the causes of acute aortic regurgitation?

A

Infective endocarditis
Aortic dissection
Chest trauma or deceleration jury damaging valve leaflets
Valve replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the causes of chronic aortic regurgitation?

A

Rheumatic heart disease
Connective tissue disorders
Infective endocarditis
Rheumatological coniditons
Age-related calcification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the intervention for a low CHAD2DS2-VASCULAR score?

A

Score of 0- request echocardiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When are anticoagulants indicated for the CA2DS2-VASC score?

A

Score above in 1 men
Score above 2 in women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does apical to radial pulse deficit indicate?

A

Atrial fibrillation as not all atrial impulses are conducted to the ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does atrial fibrillaiton affect JVP?

A

Single valve form due to loss of a wave which represents atrial contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which beta blocker is used for afib?

A

Bisoprolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which CCB is used in afib?

A

Diltiazem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What dug is given to older sedentary patients with atrial fibrillaiton?

A

Amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is sotalol?

A

Beta blocker with additional K+ channel blocker action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the aspects of the CHAD2VASC score?

A

C: 1 point for congestive cardiac failure.
H: 1 point for hypertension.
A2: 2 points if the patient is aged 75 or over.
D: 1 point if the patient has diabetes mellitus.
S2: 2 points if the patient has previously had a stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA).
V: 1 point if the patient has known vascular disease.
A: 1 point if the patient is aged 65-74.
Sc: 1 point if the patient is female.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the components of the ORBIT score?

A

Sex
Haemoglobin (<13mg/Dl in males, <12mg<dL in females) 2 points
Age (>74) 1 point
Bleeding history 2 points
Renal function (eGFR <60) 1 point
Concomitant use of anti-platelets 1 point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is HASBLED score calculate?

A

Bleeding risk

H: Hypertension 1 point
A: Abnormal renal or liver function 2 points if both are present
S: Stroke (previous) 1 point
B: Major bleed (previous) 1 point
L: Labile INR 1 point
E: Elderly (>65) 1 point
D: Drugs/alcohol 1 point for drug or alcohol use (2 points if both are present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How can echocardiogram indicate severe aortic stenosis?

A

Peak trans-valvular pressure gradient over 40mmHg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the major criteria for rheumatic fever?

A

Arthritis
Pancarditis
Syndenham’s chorea
Erythema marginatum
Subcutaneous nodules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Syndenham’s chorea?

A

Neurological disorder consisting of abrupt, non-rhythmic, involuntary movements along with muscular weakness and emotional disturbance. They are more frequently marked on one side and cease during sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is erythema marginatum?

A

pink/red, nonpruritic rash involving mainly the trunk, thighs and arms. Characteristically, the rash has raised, sharp outer edges with a diffuse clear centre, making a ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the minor Jones criteria?

A

Fever arthraliga
Raised acute phase proteins
Prolonged PR interval on ECG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which valvular pathology occcurs due to rheumatic fever?

A

Mitral stenosis-> most common
Mitral regurgitation
Aortic regurgitation
Aortic stenosis
Tricuspid regurgitation/stensosi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Mid-diastolic murmur with early snap, loudest on expiration
Mitral stenosis
26
How is ventiruclar tachycardia managed?
Amiodarone 3000mg IV
27
What is corrigan’s sign?
Bounding carotid pulse, presenting as neck pulsations in aortic regurgitation
28
What is Muller’s sign?
Pulsation of the uvula associated with aortic regurgitation
29
What is De Musset’s sign?
Head. Nodding associated with aortic regurgitation
30
What is the NICE guidance for aortic stenosis referral?
*Vmax (peak aortic jet velocity) more than 5 m/s *aortic valve area less than 0.6 cm2 *left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) less than 55% *B‑type natriuretic peptide (BNP) or N-terminal proBNP (NT-proBNP) level more than twice the upper limit of *normal symptoms unmasked on exercise testing
31
32
What is an indication of severe aortic stenosis?
Soft second heart sound, indicating that the valve has become immobile
33
When is congenital bicuspid aorti valve the most common cause of aortic stenosis?
In under 65 year olds
34
How long should anticoagulation be prior to cardioversion for atrial fibrillation?
DOAC like apixaban for 3 weeks
35
What is a risk with direct current cardioversion?
Risk of embolism with an intra-atrial thrombus. Trans-oesphageal echocardiogram is ideal to look for left atrial appendage thrombus and heparinisation
36
How should young patients with atrial fibrillation be managed?
Pill in pocket strategy wit sotalol or flecainide
37
What are the auscultation findings of aortic regurgitation?
Diastolic decrescendo murmur at left sternal border Wide pulse pressure
38
What is a temporary pacing wire given for/
Bradycardia
39
How should metallic heart valves be managed with anticoagulants?
Warfarin
40
41
What can induce digoxin toxicity?
Hypokalemia and results in dizziness and yellow discolouration of vision
42
Which drug can precipitate digoxin toxicity?
Bumetanide
43
What aortic jet velocity indicates severe aortic stenosis?
Greater than 4 m/
44
How should atrial fibrillation over 48 hours be managed?
Beta blocker
45
How should atrial fibrillation less than 48 hours be managed?
Synchronised cardioversion
46
47
What causes a shorten QT interval?
Hypercalcaemia can cause shortened QT.
48
When is an intervention indicated for mitral valve stenosis?
Mitral valve area less than 1.5cm
49
What is pulsus alterans?
pulse volume alternating between strong and weak. This occurs in patients with severe congestive heart failure
50
What is an indication for DC cardioversion with heart failure?
Bibasal crackles on auscultation
51
What is the guideline for pulseless electrical activity for ventricular tachycardia?
Chest compressions at 100-120 per minute and deliver unsynchronised shock
52
What is a shockable rhythm?
Pulseless Torsades de pointes which requires immediate unsynchronised DC cardioversion
53
How should pulseless ventricualr tachycardia be managed?
IV amiodarone 300mg over 10-60 minutes Second line is to adminstering synchronised DC shocks
54
What is the treatment for rheumatic fever?
IV benzylpenicillin with a following ten day course of phenoxymethylpenicillin
55
Which diagnostic test is used for rheumatic fever?
Group A streptococcus
56
What is the longterm management for patients with rheumatic fever?
Secondary prophylaxis with long-term penicillin
57
What causes widespread downsloping ST segment?
Digoxin
58
What medication can cause Mobitz type 1 block?
Amiodarone
59
How does phenytoin affect the ECG?
Causes hypocalcaemia which prolongs QT interval
60
61
How does amitriptylline affect ECG?
Causes prolonged QT interval
62
Which antibiotic causes prolonged QT?
Erythromycin, a macrolide antibiotic
63
What are the symptoms of digoxin toxicity?
Gastrointestinal upset like nausea and constipation Vertigo Confusion Arrythmia -> This is precipitated by hypokalemia, which can be caused by furosomide
64
What is a cause of broad QRS complex above AV node?
Supraventricular tachycardia with bundle branch block
65
What is a side effect of rifampicin?
Inducer of cytochrome P450 enzymes and reduces circulating levels of drugs. St John’s wort has a similar effect on P450 enzyme
66
What is the treatment for dioxin toxxicity?
Digibind, which is a digoxin specific antibody preventing digoxin acting on ion pumps
67
How is beta blocker overdose treated?
Atropine
68
How is hyperkalemia treated?
Nebulised salbutamol
69
What are the risk factors of digoxin toxicity?
Hypokalemia Increasing age
70
What is ortner’s syndrome?
Recurrently laryngeal nerve palsy with hoarseness of voice from cardiovascular disease
71
What is angioedema?
Swelling of lips and throat that can cause difficulty breathing due to ACE inhibitors
72
Side effect of GTN spray?
Headache Hypotension
73
What is the crtieria for using GTN spray?
1 or 2 sprays with pain and if pain is still present/worse after REPEATING dose in FIVE minutes, ring ambulance
74
Which type fo heart block has risk of progression to 3rd degree
Mobitz type II with random dropped beat. Risk f severe bradycardia and haemodynamically compromise

Year 3 (395 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions