Buzzwords for the Boards: USMLE Step I Flashcards
(2842 cards)
0
Q
Which organ most commonly recieves mets?
A
Adrenal gland (rich blood supply)
1
Q
What is associated with: Starry sky pattern?
A
Burkitt’s lymphoma
2
Q
What is the most common testicular tumor in children? in Men?
A
Yolk sac tumor, Seminoma
3
Q
What is associated with: Auer’s rods?
A
Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML)-M3
4
Q
What is associated with: Aschoff’s bodies?
A
Rheumatic fever
5
Q
What is associated with: Birbeck granules?
A
Histiocytosis X
6
Q
What is associated with: Neurofibrillary tangles?
A
Alzheimer’s disease
7
Q
What is associated with: Bence-Jones proteinuria?
A
Multiple myeloma
8
Q
What is associated with: Cal-Exner bodies?
A
Granulosa/thecal cell tumor of the ovary
9
Q
What is associated with: Cowdry type A bodies?
A
Herpes virus
10
Q
What is associated with: Codman’s triangle on an x-ray?
A
Osteosarcoma
11
Q
What is associated with: Councilman bodies?
A
Toxic or viral hepatitis
12
Q
What is associated with: Calf pseudohypertrophy?
A
Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
13
Q
What is associated with: Reed-Sternberg cells?
A
Hodgkin’s lymphoma
14
Q
What is associated with: Heinz bodies?
A
G-6-PD deficiency
15
Q
What is associated with: Homer-Wright rosettes?
A
Neuroblastoma
16
Q
What is associated with: Curschmann’s spirals?
A
Bronchial asthma (whorled mucous plugs)
17
Q
What is associated with: Kayser-Fleischer rings?
A
Wilson’s disease
18
Q
What is associated with: Lewy bodies?
A
Parkinson’s disease
19
Q
What is associated with: Orphan Annie cells?
A
Papillary carcinoma of the ovary
20
Q
What is associated with: Russell bodies?
A
Multiple myeloma
21
Q
What is associated with: Reinke’s crystals?
A
Leydig cell tumor
22
Q
What is associated with: Blue sclera?
A
Osteogenesis imperfecta
23
Q
What is associated with: Soap-bubble appearance on an x-ray?
A
Giant cell tumor of the bone
24
What is associated with: Pseudorosettes?
Ewing's sarcoma
25
What is associated with: Lucid interval?
Epidural hematoma
26
What is associated with: Bloody tap on lumbar puncture?
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
27
What is associated with: Pseudopalisades?
Glioblastoma multiforme
28
What is associated with: Charcot-Leyden crystals?
Bronchial asthma (eosinophil membranes)
29
What is associated with: Cafe au fait spot on the skin?
Neurofibromatosis
30
What is associated with: Streaky ovaries?
Turner's syndrome
31
What is associated with: Keratin pearls?
Squamous cell carcinoma
32
What is associated with: Signet ring cells?
Gastric carcinoma
33
What is associated with: Mallory's bodies?
Chronic alcoholism
34
What is associated with: Blue-domed cysts?
Fibrocystic change of the breast
35
What is associated with: Schiller-Duval bodies?
Yolk sac tumor
36
What is associated with: Senile plaques?
Alzheimer's disease
37
What is associated with: WBCs in the urine?
Acute cystitis
38
What is associated with: RBCs in the urine?
Bladder carcinoma
39
What is associated with: RBC casts in the urine?
Acute glomerulonephritis
40
What is associated with: WBC casts in the urine?
Acute pyelonephritis
41
What is associated with: Renal epithelial casts in the urine?
Acute toxic or viral nephrosis
42
What is associated with: Waxy casts?
Chronic end-stage renal disease
43
What is the most common: Cause of chronic metal poisoning?
Lead
44
What is the most common: Cause of congenital cyanotic heart disease?
Tetralogy of Fallot
45
What is the most common: Congenital cardiac anomaly?
Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
46
What is the most common: Cardiac tumor?
Left atrial myxoma
47
What is the most common: Vasculitis?
Temporal arteritis
48
What is the most common: Primary tumor of the liver?
Hemangioma (benign)
49
What is the most common: Primary malignant tumor of the lungs?
Adenocarcinoma (30% to 35%)
50
What is the most common: Cause of nephrotic syndrome?
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
51
What is the most common: cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?
Lipoid nephrosis
52
What is the most common: Organism that causes pyelonephritis?
Escherichia coli
53
What is the most common: Renal cell cancer type?
Clear cell
54
What is the most common: Tumor of the liver?
Metastatic cancer (GI, breast, lungs)
55
What is the most common: Malignant tumor of the esophagus?
Squamous cell carcinoma
56
What is the most common: Tumor arising within the bone?
Multiple myeloma
57
What is the most common: Primary malignant tumor of the female genital tract in the world?
Cervical neoplasia
58
What is the most common: Primary malignant tumor of the female genital tract in the US?
Adenocarcinoma of the cervix
59
What is the most common: Tumor of the female genitourinary tract?
Leiomyoma
60
What is the most common: Benign tumor of the ovary?
Serocystadenoma
61
What is the most common: Benign tumor of the breast?
Fibroadenoma
62
What is the most common: Benign lesion that affects the breast?
Fibrocystic change of the breast
63
What is the most common: Malignant tumor of the breast?
Invasive ductal carcinoma
64
What is the most common: Tumor in men between the ages of 15 and 35?
Testicular tumors
65
What is the most common: Germ cell tumor in men?
Seminoma
66
What is the most common: Testicular tumor in infants and children?
Yolk sac tumor
67
What is the most common: Malignant germ cell tumor in women?
Choriocarcinoma
68
What is the most common: Solid tumor in the body?
Nephroblastoma
69
What is the most common: Acquired GI emergency of infancy?
Necrotizing enterocolitis of infancy
70
What is the most common: Primary malignant tumor of the ovary?
Serocystadenocarcinoma
71
What is the most common: Cardiac tumor of infancy?
Rhabdomyoma
72
What is the most common: Acute metal poisoning?
Arsenic
73
What is the most common: Proliferative abnormality of an internal organ?
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
74
What is the most common: Malignant tumor in the bone of teenagers?
Osteosarcoma
75
What is the most common: Site of a cerebral infarct?
Middle cerebral artery
76
What is the most common: Cause of dementia between the ages of 60 and 90 years?
Alzheimer's disease
77
What is the most common: Primary CNS tumor in adults?
Glioblastoma multiforme
78
What is the most common: Primary CNS tumor in children?
Medullablastoma
79
What is the most common: Tumor on sun-exposed sites?
Basal cell carcinoma
80
What is the most common: Chromosomal disorder?
Down syndrome (trisomy 21)
81
What is the most common: Heart defect in Down syndrome?
Endocardial cushion defect
82
What is the most common: Chromosomal disorder involving sex chromosomes?
Kleinfelter's syndrome
83
What is the most common: Cardiac pathology in patients with SLE?
Libman-Sacks endocarditis
84
What is the most common: Cause of urinary tract obstruction?
BPH
85
What is the most common: Eye tumor in children?
Retinoblastoma
86
What is the most common: Intraspinal tumor?
Ependymoma
87
What is the most common: Lymph node affected in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Periaortic lymph nodes
88
What is the most common: Renal pathology in patients with SLE?
Diffuse proliferative GN
89
What is the most common: Cause of cirrhosis in the USA?
Alcohol
90
What is the most common: Malignant tumor in women?
Breast
91
What is the most common: Cancer of the vulva?
Squamous cell carcinoma
92
What is the most common: Testicular tumor in children?
Yolk sac tumor
93
What is the most common: Benign GI tumor?
Leiomyoma
94
What is the most common: Thyroid cancer?
Papillary carcinoma
95
What is the most common: Malignancy in children?
ALL
96
What is the most common: Cause of diarrhea in children?
Rotavirus
97
What is the most common: Cause of hospitalization in children younger than 1 year of age?
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
98
What is the most common: Helminthic parasite worldwide?
Ascaris lumbricoides
99
What is the most common: Cause of anovulation?
Polycystic ovaries
100
What is the most common: Cause of death in neonates?
Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS)
101
What is the most common: Cardiac anomaly in children?
Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
102
What is the most common: Congenital heart defect in adults?
Atrial septal defect (ASD)
103
What is the most common: Complication of PDA?
Subacute bacterial endocarditis
104
What is the most common: Cardiac anomaly in Turner's syndrome?
Coarctation of the aorta
105
What is the most common: Cause of restrictive cardiomyopathy?
Amyloidosis
106
What is the most common: Cause of pulmonary hypertension in children?
VSD
107
What is the most common: Cause of reversible hypertension in the USA?
Alcohol abuse
108
What is the most common: Inflammatory arthritis?
Rheumatoid arthritis
109
What is the most common: Cause of spontaneous pneumothorax?
Emphysematous bleb
110
What is the most common: Cause of nonorganic pneumoconiosis?
Asbestosis
111
What is the most common: Cause of painless hematuria?
Renal cell carcinoma
112
What is the most common: Cause of hematuria?
Infection
113
What is the most common: Hematologic cause of papillary necrosis?
Sickle cell disease
114
What is the most common: Organ involved in amyloidosis?
Kidney
115
What is the most common: Cause of abnormal bleeding?
Thrombocytopenia
116
What is the most common: Cause of a nontraumatic splenic rupture?
Malaria
117
What is the most common: Cause of death in SLE?
Renal failure
118
What is the most common: Cause of infection for a patient on a ventilator?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
119
What is the most common: Esophageal carcinoma?
Squamous cell carcinoma
120
What is the most common: Cause of chronic pancreatitis?
Alcohol abuse
121
What is the most common: Cause of infectious pancreatitis?
Mumps
122
What is the most common: Complication of nasogastric tube feeding?
Aspiration pneumonia
123
What is the most common learning disability?
Dyslexia
124
What is the most common: Cause of insomnia?
Depression
125
What is the most common: Form of necrosis?
Coagulative
126
What is the most common: Cause of blindness worldwide?
Chlamydia trachomatis
127
What is the most common: Cause of blindness in the USA?
Diabetes mellitus
128
What is the most common: Cause of the croup?
Parainfluenza virus
129
What is the most common: Cause of a cold in the winter and summer?
Coronavirus
130
What is the most common: Cause of a cold in the spring and fall?
Rhinovirus
131
What is the most common: Cause of viral pneumonia leading to death?
RSV
132
What is the most common: Pituitary tumor?
Chromophobe adenoma
133
What is the most common: Cause of panhypopituitarism?
Sheehan's syndrome
134
What is the most common: Cause of Cushing's syndrome?
Pituitary adenoma
135
What is the most common: Kidney stone type?
Calcium oxalate
136
What is the most common: Site of ischemia in the GI tract?
Splenic flexure
137
What is the most common: Cause of intestinal obstructions in adults?
Adhesions and hernias
138
What is the most common: Cause of neonatal bowel obstruction?
Hirschsprung's disease
139
What is the most common: Cause of rectal bleeding?
Diverticulosis
140
What chromosomal translocation is associated with: Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML?
Chromosome 9,22 (Philadelphia chromosome)
141
What chromosome: Ewing's sarcoma?
Chromosome 11,22
142
What chromosome: Adult familial polyposis?
Chromosome 5,21
143
What chromosome: Burkitt's lymphoma?
Chromosome 8,14
144
What chromosome: Acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)?
Chromosome 15,17
145
What chromosome: Follicular lymphoma?
Chromosome 14,18
146
What chromosome is associated with: Cru di chat?
Chromosome 5p
147
What chromosome: Patau's syndrome?
Chromosome 13
148
What chromosome: Neurofibromatosis I?
Chromosome 17
149
What chromosome: Huntington's disease?
Chromosome 4p
150
What chromosome: Familial hypercholesterolemia?
Chromosome 19
151
What chromosome: Gaucher's disease?
Chromosome 1
152
What chromosome: Neimann-Pick disease?
Chromosome 11p
153
What chromosome: Tay-Sachs disease?
Chromosome 15q
154
What chromosome: Cystic fibrosis?
Chromosome 7
155
What chromosome: Albinism?
Chromosome llp
156
What chromosome: Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)?
Chromosome 12
157
What chromosome: Marfan's disease?
Chromosome 15
158
What chromosome: Neurofibromatosis II?
Chromosome 22q
159
What chromosome: Down syndrome?
Chromosome 21
160
What chromosome: Edward's syndrome?
Chromosome 18
161
What mineral is associated with impaired glucose tolerance?
Chromium (Cr)
162
What mineral is associated with hypothyroidism?
Iodine (I)
163
What mineral is an important component of the enzyme xanthine oxidase?
Molybdenum (Mb)
164
What vitamin deficiency has the following signs: angular stomatitis, glossitis, and cheilosis?
Riboflavin (B2) deficiency
165
What vitamin is a component of the coenzyme thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP)?
Thymine (Bl)
166
Avidin decreases the absorption of what vitamin?
Biotin. Avidin is found in raw egg whites.
167
What are the four Ds of niacin deficiency?
1. Diarrhea 2. Dermatitis 3. Dementia 4. Death
168
What mineral is an important component of glutathione peroxidase?
Selenium (Se)
169
What mineral deficiency in children is associated with poor growth and impaired sexual development?
Zinc (Zn) deficiency
170
What mineral, via excessive depositions in the liver, causes hemochromatosis?
Iron (Fe)
171
What vitamin is needed in the production of heme?
Pyridoxine (B6)
172
What vitamin is a component of the enzymes fatty acid synthase and acyl CoA?
Pantothenic acid
173
What vitamin deficiency has the following signs: homocysteinuria and methylmalonic aciduria?
Cyanocobalamin (B12) deficiency [Folic acid deficiency has only homocysteinuria as a sign.]
174
What vitamin deficiency is evidenced by the following signs: poor wound healing, loose teeth, bleeding gums, petechiae, and ecchymosis?
Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) deficiency (These are the signs of scurvy.)
175
What vitamin is given as prophylactic treatment for patients who suffer from alcoholism?
Thiamine (B1)-to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy and Korsakoff's encephalopathy
176
What are the three carboxylase enzymes that require biotin?
1. Pyruvate 2. Acetyl CoA 3.Propionyl CoA carboxylase
177
What vitamin requires intrinsic factor (IF) for absorption?
Cyanocobalamin (B12)
178
What mineral is a component of cytochrome a/a3?
Copper (Cu)
179
Leukopenia, neutropenia, and mental deterioration are signs of what mineral deficiency?
Copper (Cu) deficiency
180
What vitamin deficiency causes a glove-and-stocking neuropathy seen in alcoholics?
Pyridoxine (B6) deficiency
181
What mineral deficiency involves blood vessel fragility?
Copper (Cu) deficiency
182
Megaloblastic anemia and thrombocytopenia are signs of what vitamin deficiency?
Folic acid deficiency
183
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Carbon monoxide?
Oxygen
184
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Mercury?
Dimercaprol
185
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Isoniazid?
Pyridoxine
186
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Atropine?
Physostigmine
187
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Arsenic?
Dimercaprol, D-penicillamine
188
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Digoxin?
Antidigoxin Fab fragments
189
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Gold?
Dimercaprol
190
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Ethylene glycol?
Ethyl alcohol
191
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Opiates/narcotics?
Naloxone, naltrexone
192
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Organophosphates?
Atropine, 2-PAM
193
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Warfarin?
Vitamin K
194
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Copper?
D-Penicillamine
195
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Heparin?
Protamine sulfate
196
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Iron?
Deferoxamine
197
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Cyanide?
Amyl nitrate, sodium nitrate, or sodium thiosulfate
198
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Methyl alcohol?
Ethyl alcohol
199
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Acetaminophen?
N-Acetylcysteine
200
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Nitrates?
Methylene blue
201
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Lead?
EDTA (calcium disodium edetate), dimercaprol, succimer
202
What structure is derived from the prochordal plate?
The mouth
203
What is the only organ supplied by the foregut artery that is of mesodermal origin?
Spleen
204
In which direction and how far does the gut rotate?
Counterclockwise 270 degrees
205
What structure connects the primitive gut to the yolk sac?
The yolk stalk (vitelline duct)
206
What is the artery of the embryonic foregut?
The celiac artery
207
When does the primitive gut herniate out of the embryo?
6 weeks
208
When does it return back into the embryo?
10 weeks
209
What two pathologic conditions occur when the gut does not return to the embryo?
Omphalocele and gastroschisis
210
Around what structure does the midgut rotate?
Superior mesenteric artery
211
What three things cause the indifferent gonad to become a testis?
1.Testis-determining factor (TDF) from the short arm of the Y chromosome 2.Miillerian inhibiting factor (MIF) from Sertoli cells 3.Testosterone from Leydig cells
212
Where does the embryologic foregutend?
At the first part of the duodenum
213
What is the artery of the embryonic hindgut?
The inferior mesenteric artery
214
What three embryonic cell layers form the chorion?
1. Cytotrophoblast 2. Symcytiotrophoblast 3. Extraembrvonic mesoderm
215
Which neuropore closes last?
Caudal-and it is the first to open, too.
216
What is the artery of the embryonic midgut?
The superior mesenteric artery
217
From where are nephrons derived embryonically?
Metanephros
218
What are the five derivatives of the ventral mesentery?
1. Falciform ligament 2. Hepatoduodenal ligament 3. Hepatogastric ligament 4 and 5. Coronary and triangular ligaments of the liver. All else is derived from the dorsal mesentery.
219
When do the septum primum and the septum secundum of the heart fuse?
After birth
220
The cerebral cortex is a derivative of what?
The telencephalon
221
What is the adult structure found in the embryo as the: Umbilical vein?
Ligamentum teres
222
What is the adult structure found in the embryo as the: Ductus venosus?
Ligamentum venosum
223
What is the adult structure found in the embryo as the: Foramen ovule?
Fossa ovule
224
What is the adult structure found in the embryo as the: Ductus arteriosus?
Ligamentum arteriosum
225
What is the adult structure found in the embryo as the: Umbilical artery?
Medial umbilical ligament
226
Where does the hindgut end?
At the superior portion of the anal canal
227
Where does the midgut end?
At the right two thirds of the transverse colon
228
From where is the tongue musculature derived?
Occipital somites
229
What two branchial arches contribute to the formation of the anterior two thirds of the tongue?
First and some of the second
230
What are the two fourth pharyngeal pouch derivatives?
Superior parathyroid glands and the ultimobranchial body
231
What two structures are derived from the fourth aortic arch?
Arch of the aorta and the right subclavian artery
232
What adult structures are derived from preotic somites?
Muscles of the internal eye
233
What structure is derived from the first pharyngeal pouch?
The middle ear
234
What two branchial arches contribute to the posterior two thirds of the tongue?
Third and part of the fourth
235
What are the two third pharyngeal pouch derivatives?
Inferior parathyroid glands and the thymus
236
What structure is derived from the first aortic arch?
Maxillary artery
237
From what are the urinary bladder and the urethra derived?
Urogenital sinus
238
From what are the pulmonary trunk and the ascending aorta derived?
Truncus arteriosum
239
What disorder will result when there is a failure of the urachus to close, causing a leakage of urine out of the umbilicus?
Urachal fistula
240
The common carotid and the internal carotid arteries are derivatives of what embryonic structure?
Third aortic arch
241
The palatine tonsils are derived from what embryonic structure?
Second pharyngeal pouch
242
What are the sixth aortic arch derivatives?
Right and left pulmonary arteries and the ductus arteriosus
243
The stapedial artery is derived from what?
Second aortic arch
244
The mesonephric ducts contribute to what renal structures?
The collecting ducts, calyx, renal pelvis, and ureters
245
Of what embryonic structureis the coronary sinus a derivative?
The left horn of the sinus venosus
246
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: First pharyngeal arch?
CN V
247
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: Second pharyngeal arch?
CN VII
248
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: Third pharyngeal arch?
CN IX
249
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: Fourth pharyngeal arch?
CN X
250
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: Fifth pharyngeal arch?
None-it degenerates
251
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: Sixth pharyngeal arch?
CN X
252
From where is the external auditory meatus derived?
First pharyngeal groove
253
From where is the smooth portion of the right atrium derived?
Right horn of the sinus venosus
254
Meckel's diverticulum is a remnant of what embryonic structure?
Vitelline duct (yolk stalk)
255
The pons and cerebellum are derived from what portion of the embryonic neural tissue?
Metencephalon
256
The medulla is a derivative of what portion of the embryonic neural tissue?
Myelencephalon
257
What structure "tells" the overlying cells to begin neurulation?
The notochord
258
What structure splits the cloacal membrane, resulting in the formation of the perineum?
Urorectal septum
259
In the adult, the thoracic veins are derived from what structure?
The cardinal veins
260
The gastrointestinal tract and abdominal veins are derived from what structure?
Vitelline veins
261
From what is the thyroid gland derived?
The floor of the endoderm (the posterior aspect of the tongue)
262
The thalamus and its related structures are derivatives of what?
The diencephalon
263
Transcriptionally active DNA is known as what?
Euchromatin
264
Transcriptionally inactive DNA is called?
Heterochromatin
265
What is the only histone not found inside the nucleosomes?
H1 histone-Its function is to bind nucleosomes together.
266
What coating protects proteins from intracellular degradation?
Clathrin coating
267
A nucleosome is made up of what two components?
Histories and DNA
268
What are the four functions of smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)?
1. Steroid synthesis 2. Drug detoxification 3. Ca2+ handling 4. TAG resynthesis
269
What are the long microvilli found in the inner ear and the male reproductive tract called?
Stereocilia
270
What cell junction type allows for communication between two adjacent cells?
Gap junctions (nexus)
271
Where are the enzymes for ATP production and the ETC located?
Inner fold of the mitochondria membrane
272
What cell membrane structure increases the surface area of a cell and has actin randomly assorted within its structure?
Microvillus
273
What is the function of desmosomes?
To hold adjacent cells together (i.e., adhesion)
274
What is the microtubule configuration of a basal body?
9 + 0 microtubule arrangement
275
What are the four components of the basement membrane?
1. Laminin 2. Heparan sulfate (heparitin sulfate) 3. Fibronectin 4. Type IV collagen
276
The proteins that are to stay within the cell are produced by what organelle?
Free polysome (polyribosome)
277
What is the lysosomal post- translational modification of proteins?
Phosphorylation of mannose residues
278
What cell surface modification of ependymal cells and respiratory epithelium has a 9 + 2 microtubular configur- ation and movement as its function?
Cilia
279
What protein binds hemidesmosomes to the basal lamina?
Integrin
280
What intermediate filament is found in the zona adherens?
Actin
281
The proteins to be exported or incorporated into the lysosome are produced by what organelle?
Bound polysome (polyribosome), attached to rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER)
282
What is the function of the zonula occludens and the zonula adherens?
To provide attachment between contiguous cells and to maintain a semipermeable barrier
283
The following intermediate filaments are associated with what cell types: Desmin?
Muscle cells
284
The following intermediate filaments are associated with what cell types: Cytokeratins?
Epithelial cells
285
The following intermediate filaments are associated with what cell types: Vimentin?
Mesenchymal cells
286
The following intermediate filaments are associated with what cell types: Neurofilaments?
Neurons
287
The following intermediate filaments are associated with what cell types: Glial filaments?
Astrocytes
288
The basal lamina + the reticular lamina = what?
The basement membrane
289
What is the name of the organelle where collagen is made?
Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER)
290
What vitamin is needed for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine in collagen synthesis?
Vitamin C - Survy
291
What are the two amino acids that cross-link elastin molecules?
Desmosine and isodesmosine
292
What is the major inorganic component of bone?
Hydroxyapatite
293
What cell in bone is a part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?
Osteoclasts
294
What are the two types of cells located in the perichondrium of cartilage?
Fibroblasts and chondroblasts
295
What cell in the CNS is part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?
Microglia
296
What substance, found in eosinophils, is toxic to parasitic worms?
Major basic protein
297
Where is tropocollagen aggregated to form a collagen fibril?
Extracellularly
298
What cell surface extension allows osteocytes in the lacunaeto "talk" to each other?
Canaliculi
299
What cell type produces myelin in the CNS?
Oligodendrocytes
300
In which ventricles is/are choroid plexus found?
All four ventricles
301
What muscle type has calmodulin?
Smooth muscle
302
What element is needed for the proper alignment of the tropocollagen molecules?
Copper (Cu+)
303
What is added to the procollagen molecules to prevent intracellular precipitation?
Registration peptides
304
In what tissue can you find intercalated disks?
Cardiac muscle
305
What are intercalated disks?
Dense bands containing intercellular junctions that link adjacent cells mechanically and electrically
306
Of what are intercalated disks composed?
Fascia adherens (mainly) Desmosomes Gap junctions
307
What are the proteoglycans of cartilage and bone?
Chondroitin sulfate and keratan sulfate
308
What is the only glycosamino- glycan (GAG) that binds to the linker portion of the proteoglycan?
Hyaluronic acid (all sulfates bind to the core portion)
309
What is the portion of an axon that lacks myelin and is rich in Na+/K+ pumps?
Node of Ranvier
310
What type of CNS cells have cilia, line the ventricles, and contribute to the blood-brain barrier?
Ependymal cells
311
What are the largest glial cells in the CNS (Hint: They contribute to the blood- brain barrier.)?
Astrocytes
312
Myelin is produced by what type of PNS cells?
Schwann cells
313
What is the dominant cell type in the lacunae of cartilage?
Chondrocytes
314
What structure runs perpendicular to the Haversian canals in the bone?
Volkmann's canal
315
What are the three reasons for the effectiveness of the blood-brain barrier?
1. Tight junctions 2. Capillaries that lack fenestration 3. Very selective pinocytosis by the capillaries
316
What types of muscle have troponin?
Skeletal and cardiac
317
What type of muscle is uninuclear and nonstriated?
Smooth muscle - it lacks T tubules and has gap junctions
318
On what area of the spleen are the APCs located?
Marginal zone
319
What is the dominant cell type in the red pulp of the spleen?
Red blood cells
320
On what area of the lymph node can you locate plasma cells?
Medulla
321
What is the name of the area in the thymus where T cells are produced?
Hassall's corpuscle
322
What type of muscle is striated and multinuclear?
Skeletal muscle- it of T tubules and SR at the A-I junction
323
In what region of the spleen are the germinal centers located?
White pulp-where B cell differentiation takes place
324
What layer of the skin is missing in thin skin?
Stratum lucidum
325
What are the phagocytic cells of the GI tract called?
Paneth cells (Paneth's granular cells)
326
Which immunoglobulin is secreted by the plasma cells in the GI tract?
IgA
327
In what area of the spleen are the T cells located?
Periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS)
328
In what area of the lymph node are the T cells and the APCs located?
Paracortical (thymic-dependent) area
329
What type of muscle is striated, branched, and uninuclear?
Cardiac muscle-dyadic T tubules with SR at the Z line
330
What does the tunica intima of arteries have that veins do not?
An internal elastic lamina
331
What two layers of skin makeup the malphighian layer?
Stratum basalis and spinosus (mitotic area)
332
What type of skin cells have the mature melanin granules?
Keratinocytes. Melanocytes inject melanosomes into the keratinocytes and mature there.
333
What type of skin cells are part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?
Langerhans' cells
334
What cells of the epidermis, derived from the neural crest, act as mechano- receptors?
Merkel's cells (Merkel's tactile cells)
335
What layer of the epidermis acts as a sealant to protect against desiccation?
Stratum granulosum
336
What layer of the skin is composed of non-nucleated cells full of keratin?
Stratum corneum
337
What are the antigen- presenting cells in the Peyer's patches of the GI known as?
M cells
338
What are the three "tunica" layers of a blood vessel wall?
1. Tunica intima 2. Tunica media 3. Tunica adventitia
339
Within what layer of the heart are the nerves and conducting fibers located?
Subendocardial space
340
Which organs have fenestrated capillaries with diaphragms?
Kidney, Intestines, Endocrine organs
341
What secondary lymphoid tissue is encapsulated and has germinal centers?
Peyer's patches
342
What organs have sinusoid capillaries (leakiest type)?
Liver, Bone marrow, Spleen
343
What type of vessel has a thick tunica media?
Arteries. Veins have a thick tunica adventitia.
344
Is the spleen a capsulated organ with trabeculae?
Yes-although it does not have cortical or medullary regions
345
What secondary lymphoid organ is found just below the stratified squamous epithel- ium and is partially capsulated?
Tonsils
346
What type of capillary lacks fenestrations and has pinocytotic vesicles?
Continuous capillary
347
What region of the body has fenestrated capillaries without diaphragms?
Kidney glomeruli
348
Does the thymus have germinal centers?
No. Germinal centers are associated with B cells.
349
What cell of the liver is part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?
Kupffer cells
350
What papillae are respons- ible for sweet taste?
Circumvalate papillae
351
What are the three epi- dermal derivatives?
1. Nails 2. Hair 3. Sweat glands (both apocrine and sebaceous)
352
What papillae send their senses via chorda tympani of CN VII?
Fungiform papillae
353
What is the area of mitotic activity in the GI tract?
The crypts of Lieberkuhn
354
What cells of the GI tract secrete HCl and intrinsic factor?
Parietal cells of the stomach
355
What type of sweat gland is under cholinergic stimulation?
Eccrine gland
356
What gland produces a serous secretion that is approximately 20% of the total saliva produced?
Parotid gland
357
What papillae are touch receptors on the tongue and send their sensations via CN V3 (mandibular division)?
Filiform papillae
358
Secretin and CCK are produced in what portion of the GI tract?
Small intestine
359
What cells of the stomach secrete pepsinogen?
Chief cells
360
What cell type produces dentin of the teeth?
Odontoblasts (neural crest)
361
What cell type produces enamel of the teeth?
Ameloblasts (ectoderm)
362
What gland produces 70% of the total salivary secretions and is a mixture of serous (predominantly) and mucous alveoli and secretory units?
Submandibular gland
363
What type of cells of the respiratory system secrete surfactant?
Type II pneumocytes
364
What zone of the liver is the first to be affected in times of hypoxia?
Central region (around the central vein)
365
In what region of the respiratory system do you first see Clara cells?
Terminal bronchioles
366
What substance does the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney secrete in response to low blood pressure?
Renin
367
In what region of the liver is fat stored?
Space of Disse -Ito cells and Vit A also
368
In what region of the GI tract does exfoliation take place?
At the tip of the villi
369
What are the mucus secreting cells in the respiratory tract above the level of the terminal bronchioles?
Goblet cells
370
What cells of the distal convoluted tubule are sensitive to the low ion content of the urine?
Macula densa
371
What cells comprise 95% of the alveolar surface and are responsible for gas exchange?
Type I pneumocytes
372
What are the two hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland via the para- ventricular supranuclei?
ADH and oxytocin
373
What area of the nephron is impermeable to water?
Ascending limb of the loop of Henle
374
What region of the kidney is affected by ADH?
Collecting duct for water reabsorption- but the DCT is also affected by ADH
375
What portion of the kidney actively pumps Cl- out of the tubule?
Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle
376
What region of the kidney has a countercurrent multi- plier producing a gradient of hypertonicity in the tubule lumen?
Loop of Henle
377
What region of the liver is first affected in toxic doses of drugs?
Peripheral zone (because extraction of substances occurs there first)
378
What are the two acidophilic hormones secreted by the adenohypophysis?
GH and prolactin "(,Pp;~
379
In what region of the kidney does the greatest extraction of nutrients occur?
Proximal convoluted tubule (-66% of nutrient extraction occurs here)
380
What cells of the thyroid gland secrete calcitonin?
Parafollicular C cells (new4 ash,
381
What cells of the adrenal gland are neural crest derivatives?
Chromaffin cells (adrenal medulla)
382
What cells secrete glucagon?
Alpha cells of the islet of Langerhans
383
What hormone inhibits glucagon release and pancreatic exocrine secretions?
Somatostatin
384
What hormone causes milk letdown?
Oxytocin
385
Low levels of what hormone stimulates the uterus to go into its proliferative stage?
Estrogen
386
What cells of the genito- urinary system secrete testosterone?
Leydig cells (stimulated by LH)
387
What is the mucus-secreting gland in the male reproductive system?
Bulbourethral glands (Cowper's glands)
388
Elevated levels of what hormone cause the endometrium to enter the secretory phase of the female cycle?
Progesterone
389
What are the cells of the parathyroid gland that produce parathyroid hormone (PTH)?
Chief cells
390
What hormone produced during the night causes a decrease in gonadal function?
Melatonin
391
Where is melatonin produced?
Pineal gland
392
What are the four basophilic hormones released from the adenohypophysis?
1. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) 2. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 3. Luteinizing hormone (LH) 4. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
393
What cells form the blood-testis barrier?
Sertoli's cells
394
What is the chromosome number of-G1?
46 (2n)
395
What is the chromosome number of-S phase?
46 (4n)
396
What is the chromosome number of-G2?
46 (4n)
397
What is the chromosome number of-Mitosis?
46 (4n) to 46 (2n)
398
What is the chromosome number of a primary spermatocyte?
46 (4n)
399
In females, meiosis is arrested twice - when and at what stages of meiosis?
1. First, in utero at prophase I, 2. Second, at ovulation in metaphase II
400
What cell is under control of FSH and testosterone; secretes inhibin, MIF, and androgen-binding protein; and phagocytizes the excess cytoplasm of the spermatid?
Sertoli cell
401
What must occur for an egg to complete ovulation?
It needs to be fertilized by a sperm. If it is not, the egg is released in metaphase II and meiosis is incomplete.
402
What is the chromosome number at the end of meiosis I?
23 (2n)-it is the reductive phase of meiosis.
403
What is the major androgen released from the zona reticularis?
Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)
404
What hormone causes an increase in the accumulation of adipose and collagenous tissue of the breast and an increase in the branching of the ducts of the breast?
Estrogen
405
What promotes further prolactin and oxytocin release?
Suckling
406
What part of the placenta is derived from the mother?
Decidua basalis
407
What is the most common site of fertilization?
Ampulla of the fallopian tube
408
What is the only cranial nerve that comes off the dorsal surface of the brain stem?
CN IV
409
What type of fiber is carried in the dorsal root?
Sensory or motor. Sensory only
410
How would a lower motor neuron (LMN) lesion present?
Hyporeflexia, fasiculations and flaccid paralysis (always ipsilateral)
411
What is the name of the brain stem tract in which the dorsal columns run?
Medial lemniscus
412
What is the ability to tell what something is without looking at it and using only your hands?
Stereognosis
413
In what tract do pain and temperature fibers run?
Spinothalamic tract
414
What gyrus in the cerebral cortex receives information from fibers of the dorsal column tract?
Postcentral gyrus
415
What area of the brain is responsible for contralateral gaze?
Frontal eye field (Brodmann area 8)
416
What is the thalamic relay nucleus for the visual system?
Lateral geniculate body (LGB)
417
What is the function of the ossicles?
They increase the intensity of sound
418
What muscle in the eye is responsible for accommodation?
Ciliary muscle
419
What area of the eye has the greatest visual acuity?
Fovea (it is made up soley of cones)
420
What cell type in the eye is for color vision?
Cones (Cones and color)
421
If there is macula sparing in a visual deficit, where is the lesion?
In the occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex (optic radiations)
422
...
Which way do the eyes drift in a frontal eye field lesion?
423
To the side of the lesion
What is the thalamic relay nucleus that CN V needs to "speak" to in order to pass its information on to the cerebral cortex?
424
Ventroposteromedial (VPM)
Cell bodies of what fibers are found in the mesencephalic nucleus of CN V?
425
Proprioception of the face (CN V) and motor (jaw jerk reflex)
If a patient presented with an LMN lesion in CN V, CN VII, or CN XII, what would you see?
426
Ipsilateral paresis
What is the motor relay nucleus of the thalamus?
427
Ventrolateral (VL) nucleus of thalamus
What is the only cell type to leave the cerebellum?
428
Purkinje (inhibitory) - GABA
If a patient presented with a right-sided cerebellar lesion, which way would the patient fall if he closed his eyes?
429
To the right
What is the function of the superior olivary nucleus?
430
To localize and detemine the nature of sounds (Sound and superior start with S.)
If a patient presents with a left nystagmus, where is the lesion?
431
On the right, because the nvstagmus is named for the fast component, and the fast component is to the unaffected side.
What region of the cerebellum is responsible for the planning of movements?
432
Cerebellar hemisphere
What is the thalamic relay nucleus for the limbic system?
433
Anterior nucleus
What fluid is found in the anterior chamber of the eye?
434
Aqueous humor
What is the dividing line between the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye?
435
The lens
If there is a total anopsia of the left eye, where is the lesion?
436
Optic nerve of the left eye
What is the center for ipsilateral gaze?
437
The paramedian pontine reticular formation (PPRF)
What fluid of the inner ear has an electrolyte content like that of the extracellular fluid compartment (ECF)?
438
Perilymph
What is the thalamic relay nucleus for the auditory system?
439
MGB
What region of the cerebellum is responsible for balance and eye movement?
440
Flocculonodular lobe
What is the only cell in the cerebellum to have an excitatory neurotransmitter?
441
Granule cell
What does the nystagmus look like if cold water is placed in the right ear?
442
Slow drift to the right, fast drift to the left
COWS = Cold Opposite - Warm Same (named in reference to the fast component)
443
Information from the cerebellum leaves via what?
Superior cerebellar peduncle
444
In what portion of the internal capsule are you if you can see the caudate nucleus?
Anterior limb
445
What type of memory is lost in a hippocampal lesion?
Long-term memory
446
In what region of the brain stem does the corticospinal tract cross over?
Medullary decussation
447
From what gyrus of the brain does the corticospinal tract originate?
Precentral gyrus
448
What type of fibers are carried in the ventral rami?
Both sensory and motor (from the spinal nerve on both sensory and motor fibers)
449
What are the hallmark signs of an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion?
1. Hyperreflexia 2. Spastic paralysis 3. Positive Babinski sign
450
What tract carriers fibers for voluntary refined movements of the distal extremities?
Corticospinal tract
451
What is the name of the tract in which the dorsal columns from the lower extremities run?
Fasciculus gracilis (It is medial of the two tracts on a cross-section of the spinal cord; the lateral tract is the fasciculus cuneatus.) Remember: Lower extremities dancing-graceful-gracilis.
452
What is the function of the superior colliculi?
Cell bodies that are to be relayed to the thalamus for sight are found there. (Sight and superior start with S.)
453
In order for sensory information from the dorsal columns and the spinothalamic tract to get to the cerebral cortex, they must use what thalamic relay nucleus?
Ventroposterolateral (VPL)
454
In which region of the spinal cord does the spinothalamic tract cross over?
Ventral white commissure (VWC)
455
Sensory information from the spinothalamic tract sends its information to what region of the cerebral cortex?
Postcentral gyrus
456
In which region of the brain stem do the dorsal columns cross over?
Lower medulla (synapse on nucleus gracilis or cuneatus)
457
What tract carries conscious proprioception,fine touch, two-point discrimination, and vibratory sense?
Dorsal column tract (all senses except pain and temperature)
458
What tract of the spinal cord carries dorsal column information from the upper extremities?
Fasciculus cuneatus
459
If the right side of the corticobulbar tract to the muscles of facial expression were damaged, where would the deficit be seen?
In the contralateral lower face (left)
460
If the corticobulbar tract for CN V and CN XII were cut on the right side, where would the lesion be?
There would be no deficit, because the corticobulbar tract receives bilateral input.
461
What type of fibers are carried in the ventral root?
Motor only
462
What peduncle(s) carry information into the cerebellum?
Inferior and middle cerebellar peduncles
463
Cell bodies of what fibers are found in the trigeminal ganglion?
Touch, pain, and temperature
464
When the head moves, what causes the eyes to move in the opposite direction?
Vestibular system
465
Unconscious proprioception, body sense, and motor execution are functions of what part of the cerebellum?
Vermis and intermediate lobe
466
What three structures contain perilymph?
1. Scala tympani 2. Scala vestibuli 3. Semicircular canals
467
The gravity receptors for changes in the position of the head are located in what part of the inner ear?
Saccule and utricle
468
What cells are for black and white vision (night vision)?
Rods
469
What is the fluid of the posterior compartment of the eye?
Vitreous humor
470
What type of fluid in the inner ear has the consistency of intracellular fluid (ICF)?
Endolymph (high levels of K+)
471
Name three lesions that can cause left homonymous hemianopsia?
1. Lesion of the right optic tract 2. Lesion of the lateral geniculate body (LGB) 3. Lesion of the optic radiation
472
What lesion produces a tremor upon movement?
A cerebellar lesion
473
What part of the inner ear is sensitive to angular acceleration and deceleration?
Semicircular canals
474
What is the normal volume of CSF?
Approximately 140 ml
475
What muscle of the eye is under parasympathetic control?
Sphincter pupillae (part of iris)
476
What cranial nerve receives sensory information from the cornea?
CN VI (ophthalmic division)
477
What artery supplies blood to the trunk and the lower extremities on a homunculus map of the cerebral cortex?
Anterior cerebral artery
478
What structures of the inner ear contain endolymph?
1. Scala media 2. Semicircular ducts 3. Saccule Utricle
479
With what type of lesions do you see tremors at rest?
Lesions of the basal ganglia
480
What muscle of the eye is under sympathetic control?
Dilator pupillae (part of the iris)
481
Where is the lesion if the patient presents with a right nasal hemianopsia?
Right internal carotid artery compression on the optic chiasm
482
What part of the inner ear functions in head movement?
Semicircular ducts
483
What part of the internal capsule are you in if you see the thalamus?
Posterior limb of the internal capsule
484
What region of the basal ganglia is affected in Parkinson's disease?
Substantia nigra (degeneration)
485
Hemorrhagic destruction of the contralateral subthalamic nuclei results in what disorder?
Herniballismus (wild flailing movements)
486
Slow writhing movements (athetosis) are caused by what?
Hypermyelinization of the corpus striatum and the thalamus (seen in cerebral palsy)
487
Atrophy of the striatum of the basal ganglia results in what?
Chorea (involuntary quick movements)
488
What tracts are found in the genu of the internal capsule?
Corticobulbar tracts
489
What tracts are found in the posterior limb of the IC?
Corticospinal Spinothalamic Dorsal column Thalamocortical
490
What tracts are found in the anterior limb of the IC?
Thalamocortical tracts
491
If warm water is placed in the right ear, what does the nystagmus look like?
Slow drift to the left and fast drift to the right (COWS = Cold Opposite & Warm Same)
492
What lesion causes a bitemporal hemianopsia?
Optic chiasm lesion
493
What area of the brain is known as the motor speech area?
Broca's area
494
What does Meyer's loop lesion cause?
Contralateral homonymous superior quadrantopia
495
Blood supply to the head/neck area and the upper limb on a homunculus map in the cerebral cortex comes from what artery?
Middle cerebral artery
496
What area of the brain is known for language comprehension?
Wernicke's area
497
Where is the lesion if the patient presents with a right homonymous inferior quadrantanopia?
Left upper loop lesion
498
What region of the cerebellum is affected if a patient has dystaxia of the legs and trunk during walking?
Anterior vermis (It is most commonly caused by chronic alcohol abuse.)
499
Where is the lesion in a patient who presents with a broad-based gait, hypotonia, intention tremors, nystagmus, and ataxia?
Cerebellum
500
What are the functions of the external auditory meatus?
Sound collection and protection of the tympanic membrane
501
What is the function of the inferior colliculi?
To receive bilateral auditory input and arrange the input tonotopically
502
If a patient presents with nystagmus, dystaxia, and hypotonia of the ipsilateral limbs, what area of the cerebellum is affected?
Hemisphere
503
What lesion of the cerebellum is usually caused by an ependymoma or medulloblastoma, resulting in dystaxia of the trunk with an inability to maintain an upright posture?
Posterior vermis lesion
504
What spinal cord injury results in flaccid paralysis and muscle atrophy?
Polio (bilateral ventral horn lesion)
505
What spinal cord lesion results in a lower motor neuron (LMN) lesion at the level of the lesion and an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion below the level of the lesion?
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)-Lou Gehrig's disease
506
What arterial occlusion would result in a loss of all tracts in the spinal cord except the dorsal columns?
Anterior spinal artery occlusion (posterior spinal artery supplies the dorsal columns)
507
What spinal cord lesion results in a bilateral loss of pain and temperature at the level of the lesion?
Syringomyelia (VWC lesion)
508
What spinal cord lesion causes a bilateral dorsal column loss below the level of the lesion?
Tabes dorsalis (neurosyphilis)
509
What disease is associated with demyelination of the dorsal column, spinocerebellar tract, and corticospinal tract?
Subacute combined degeneration
510
What arterial occlusion results in contralateral spastic hemiparesis, contralateral spastic lower face, and ipsilateral oculomotor palsy (dilated, ptosis, eye down and out)?
Posterior cerebral artery occlusion (ventral midbrain syndrome)
511
What syndrome is associated with an ipsilateral UMN lesion below the level of the lesion, ipsilateral dorsal column loss at and below the level of the lesion, an LMN lesion at the level of the lesion, bilateral loss of pain and temperature at the level and contralateral below the level of the lesion, and Horner's syndrome if it is above the level of C6?
Brown-Sequard syndrome (heimisection of the spinal cord)
512
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Contralateral spastic hemiparesis of the body?
Vertebral artery-pyramid
513
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Contralateral loss of position and vibration?
Vertebral artery-medial lemniscus
514
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Ipsilateral paralysis of the tongue?
Vertebral artery-CN XII
515
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Ipsilateral limb ataxia?
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery-inferior cerebellar peduncle
516
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Ipsilateral pain and temperature loss of the face?
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery-spinal nucleus of CN V
517
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Contralateral pain and temperature of the body?
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery- spinotbalamic tract
518
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Nystagmus away from the lesion?
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery- vestibular nuclei
519
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Ipsilateral Horner's syndrome?
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery- descending autonomics
520
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Ipsilateral facial paralysis?
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery-CN Vll
521
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Deafness?
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery-CN VIll
522
What is the name for the most prominent spinous process in the spine?
Vertebra prominens (C7 in 70% of cases, C6 in 20%, T1 in 10%)
523
What portion of the intervertebral disk is a remnant of the notochord?
Nucleus pulposus
524
What three muscles comprise the erector spinae?
1. Iliocostalis 2. Longissimus 3. Spinalis
525
What are the names given to the first and second cervical vertebrae?
C1-atlas C2-axis
526
To what vertebral level does the spinal cord extend?
LI to L2
527
What is the name of the extension of the dura mater that attaches at the level of S2?
External filum terminale
528
How many pairs of spinal nerves exit from the spinal cord?
31 pairs
529
What is the name of the region where the manubrium and the body of the sternum articulate?
Sternal angle of Louis
530
What muscle originates from the third to the fifth ribs and inserts into the coracoid process?
Pectoralis minor
531
Damage to what nerve will give you "winged scapula'."?
Long thoracic nerve To avoid confusing long thoracic nerve and lateral thoracic artery: Long has an "n" for nerve; lateral 3 & has an "a" for artery.
532
The ventral rami of what regions of the spinal cord make up the brachial plexus?
C5-TI
533
What bone houses the ulnar groove?
Humerus (between the medial epicondyle and the trochlea)
534
What muscle initiates Abduction of the arm?
Supraspinakis
535
What muscle acts in all ranges of motion of the arm?
Deltoid
536
What nerve is damaged if a patient presents with "wrist drop"?
Radial nerve
537
What forms the anatomic snuff box?
Extensor pollicis longus, abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis
538
What vein, in the antecubital fossa, forms the communica- tion between the basilic vein and the cephalic vein?
Median cubital vein (most common site for venipuncture)
539
What two muscles are inner- vated by the axillary nerve?
Deltoid and teres minor
540
What nerve is compromised in carpal tunnel syndrome?
Median nerve
541
In what compartment of the thigh is the profundus femoris artery found?
Anterior compartment (it's the blood supply to the posterior compartment)
542
"Foot drop" is caused by a compromise in what nerve?
Common peroneal nerve
543
What nerve is damaged if the patient cannot ADduct the thigh?
Obturator nerve (nerve to the medial compartment of the thigh)
544
What is the longest muscle of the body?
Sartorius
545
What two nerves innervate the pectineus muscle?
Femoral and obturator nerves
546
What superficial vein empties into the popliteal fossa?
Short saphenous vein
547
What is the artery of the anterior compartment of the leg?
Anterior tibia] artery
548
What nerve supplies the lateral compartment of the leg?
Superficial peroneal nerve
549
What sensory nerve are you testing when you touch the first web space of the toes?
Deep peroneal nerve
550
The peroneal artery is a branch of what artery?
Posterior tibial
551
Inflammation of the pre- patellar bursa is often referred to as what?
Housemaid's knee
552
What is the prominent "bump" on the lateral aspect of the knee?
Head of the fibula
553
How many ribs articulate with the sternum?
Seven (Ribs 8, 9, and 10 articulate with the costal cartilage of rib 7.)
554
What is the part of the lung that extends above the level of the first rib?
The cupula
555
What type of pleura is adherent to the surface of the organ?
Visceral pleura
556
How many lobes does the right lung have?
Three
557
How are they separated?
By the oblique and the transverse fissures
558
Into what chamber of the heart do the pulmonary veins empty?
Left atrium (Remember-the pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood.)
559
What is the only valve in the heart that has two cusps?
Mitral (bicuspid) valve
560
What vein travels with the right coronary artery?
Small cardiac vein
561
At what vertebral level does the trachea bifurcate?
T4-T5 (It is known as the carina.)
562
What attaches the cusps of the valves to the papillary muscles in the heart?
Chordae tendineae
563
Around what thoracic structure does the right recurrent laryngeal nerve loop before ascending into the larynx?
Right subclavian artery
564
At what vertebral level does the esophagus originate?
C6
565
At what level does the abdominal aorta bifurcate into the common iliac arteries?
L4-L5
566
The obturator artery is a branch of what major artery?
Internal iliac artery
567
What is the first branch off the abdominal artery?
Inferior phrenic artery
568
Into what vessel does the right gonadal vein drain?
The inferior vena cava
569
Into what vessel does the left gonadal vein drain?
The left renal vein
570
At what vertebral level does the common carotid artery bifurcate?
C4
571
At what vertebral level is the hyoid bone found?
C3
572
The ophthalmic artery is a branch of what vessel?
Internal carotid artery
573
What forms the portal vein?
The union of the superior mesenteric and the splenic veins
574
Where does the inferior mesenteric vein drain?
The splenic vein
575
What vein is formed by the union of the right and left brachiocephalic veins?
Superior vena cava
576
What is the only muscle in the larynx that is not inner- vated by the recurrent laryn- geal nerve?
Cricothyroid (It's innervated by the external laryngeal nerve.)
577
The folds of the mucosa of the stomach are known as what?
Rugae
578
What is the artery of the embryonic foregut?
Celiac artery
579
What comprises the portal triad?
1. Common bile duct 2. Hepatic artery 3. Portal vein
580
What structures differentiate the anatomic right and left lobes of the liver?
Ligamentum teres and ligamentum venosum
581
What structure "runs" along the transverse processes of the lumbar vertebrae?
Ureters
582
To enter into the lesser peri-toneal sac, you must traverse through what foramen?
Foramen of Winslow
583
What is another name for the rectouterine pouch?
Pouch of Douglas
584
What bones comprise the acetabulum?
Pubis, ilium, and ischium
585
What two ligaments of the uterus are remnants of the gubernaculum?
Bound and ovarian ligaments
586
What muscles comprise the deep perineal space (the urogenital diaphragm)?
Deep transverse perineal and sphincter urethrae
587
What three ligaments com- prise the broad ligament of the uterus?
1. Mesosalpinx 2. Mesovarium 3. Mesometrium
588
What structure traverses the diaphragm at the level of T8?
IVC
589
What are the components of the pudendal canal?
Pudendal nerve and internal pudendal artery and vein
590
What range of movements can be performed at the metacarpal/phalangealjoint?
Flexion/extension, ABduction, and ADduction
591
A fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus will most likely damage what nerve?
Axillary nerve
592
What compartment of the lower extremity allows flexion of the hip and extension of the knee?
Anterior compartment of the thigh
593
What nerve roots comprise the lumbosacral plexus?
L4 to S4
594
What is the function of gray rami communicans?
They are postganglionic sympathetic axons.
595
What compartment of the lower extremities allows ADduction of the thigh and flexion of the hip?
Medial compartment of the thigh
596
What are the only splanchnics in the body that carry preganglionic parasympathetic fibers?
Pelvic splanchnics (P begins preganglionic, parasympathetic, and pelvic.)
597
What postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion is associated with CN III?
Ciliary ganglion
598
What is the name of the ganglion that houses the cell bodies for the postganglionic sympathetic fibers to the head and neck?
Superior cervical ganglion
599
What two muscles do you test to see if CN XI is intact?
Trapezius and sternocleidoinastoid
600
What component of the corneal reflex is lost in a CN VII deficit?
Motor aspect
601
Toward what side would the uvula point if the right CN X were damaged?
The left (points to the unaffected side)
602
What is the name of the urinary bladder where the ureters enter and the urethra exits?
Urinary trigone
603
What is the only organ in the body supplied by preganglionic sympathetic fibers?
Adrenal rnedulla
604
The pudendal canal is formed by splitting the fascia of what muscle?
Obturator internus
605
What is the name of the duct formed by the union of the vas deferens and the duct of the seminal vesicle?
Ejaculatory duct
606
What are the fingerlike projections at the end of the fallopian (uterine) tubes?
Fimbriae
607
Where is the seminal vesicle located?
On the posterior aspect of the urinary bladder
608
What vessel can be found atop the scalene anterior?
Subclavian vein
609
What muscle divides the anterior from the posterior triangles of the neck?
Sternocleidomastoid
610
Where does the parotid (Stenson's) duct enter the oral cavity?
Opposite the second upper molar tooth
611
What is the function of the arachnoid granulations?
Resorb CSF into the blood
612
What muscle is the most superiorly situated muscle in the orbit?
Levator palpebrae superioris
613
What is the triad of Horner's syndrome?
Miosis, ptosis, and anhydrosis
614
What bone of the middle ear articulates with the tympanic membrane?
Malleus
615
What chamber of the eye is located between the iris and the lens?
Posterior chamber
616
What bone houses the ear?
Temporal bone
617
What is the only muscle of the tongue not innervated by the hypoglossal nerve?
Palatoglossus
618
Where does the nasolacrimal duct terminate?
Inferior meatus of the nasal cavity
619
What gland is found in the muscular triangle of the neck?
Thyroid gland
620
What two regions of the vertebral column are con- sidered primary curvatures?
Thoracic and sacral
621
What are the only muscles in the body innervated by dorsal rami?
Intrinsic (deep) muscles of the back (All other muscles are innervated by ventral rami.)
622
What is the portion of the second cervical vertebra that projects superiorly to act as the body for C1?
Odontoid (dens) process
623
What is the actual space that contains CSF?
Subarachnoid space
624
What is the protective covering that is adherent to the spinal cord and CNS tissue?
Pia mater
625
What is the name of the spinal cord that passes within the subarachnoid space that forms the spinal nerves that exit the lumbar and sacral foramina?
Cauda equina
626
What are the names ligaments that would pierced, in order, by a lumbar puncture?
1. Supraspinous ligament 2. Interspinous ligament 3. Ligamentum flavum
627
What is the inferiormost segment of the sternum?
Xiphoid process
628
True or false-the pectoralis major medially rotates the arm?
True; it also ADducts and flexes the arm.
629
What are the borders of the axillary artery?
Lateral border of the first rib to the inferior border of the teres major
630
What vessels arise from the three segments of the axillary artery?
1. Superior thoracic artery 2. Lateral thoracic artery and thoracoacromial trunk 3. Subscapular artery, and the anterior and posterior humeral circumflex One artery from the first segment, two arteries from the second segment, and three arteries from the third segment
631
What muscle is the main lateral rotator of the arm?
Infraspinatus muscle
632
What innervates the flexor compartment of the arm?
Musculocutaneus nerve
633
What nerve is most commonly affected when there is a fracture of the midshaft of the humerus?
Radial nerve C deer "(Int4.1 a .
634
What vein courses along the medial aspect of the forearm?
Basilic vein
635
What is the blood vessel in the upper extremity most commonly palpated while taking a pulse?
Radial artery
636
What is the nerve supply to the forearm?
Median nerve (except for the flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digiti profundus muscles of the pinkie and ring finger, which are supplied by the ulnar)
637
What are the "LOAF" muscles of the hand?
LOAF stands for the muscles of the hand innervated by the median nerve: Lumbricales, Opponens pollicis, Abductor pollicis brevis, and Flexor pollicis brevis; All other intrinsic muscles in the hand are innervated by the ulnar nerve
638
What muscles in the hand ADduct the fingers?
The palmer interosseus adducts, whereas the dorsal interosseus abducts (PAD and DAB)
639
In order to pronate the hand, what bones need to cross?
Radius crosses over the ulna
640
At what point does the femoral artery become the popliteal artery?
When it traverses the adductor hiatus
641
Loss of ABduction of the lower limbs results in Trendelenburg gait; what nerve is compromised to cause this?
Superior gluteal nerve
642
What two arteries join together to form the super- ficial and deep palmar arches of the hand?
Uhiar and radial arteries (ulnar is the main supplier)
643
What muscle "fills" the greater sciatic foramen?
Piriformis
644
What nerve is affected when a patient has difficulty rising from a sitting position?
Inferior gluteal nerve (nerve to the gluteus maximus)
645
Why are IM injections in the gluteal mass given in the upper outer quadrant?
To avoid damage to the sciatic nerve
646
What two nerves innervate the adductor magnus?
Obturator and tibial nerves
647
What two nerves innervate the biceps femoris?
Common peroneal and tibial nerves
648
Going from lateral to medial, what structures pass deep to the inguinal ligament?
NAVEL-Nerve, Arterv, Vein, Empty space, and Lacunar ligament or Lymphatics
649
What artery turns into the dorsalis pedis when it crosses the extensor retinaculum?
Anterior tibial artery
650
What is the nerve for the anterior compartment of the leg?
Deep peroneal nerve
651
What is the artery for the posterior compartment of the leg?
Posterior tibial arterv
652
Where is the "magical plane" that divides the superior from the inferior media- stinum?
A horizontal line from T4-T5 to the sternal angle of Louis
653
What vein drains the lower third of the thoracic wall?
Hemiazygous vein
654
If you were to do a pleural tap, what region of the intercostal space would your needle enter?
The superior border of the rib
655
Why?
Because the neurovascular bundle is located on the inner surface of the inferior border of the rib
656
What muscles of the foot are supplied by the medial plantar nerve (Hint: Think about the median nerve distribution in the hand.)?
LAFF-Lumbricalis (1st), Abductor hallucis, Flexor 3X hallucis brevis, Flexor digitorum brevis. All other intrinsic muscles in the foot are supplied by the lateral plantar nerve.
657
What remnant of the middle lobe of the lung is found on the left side?
The lingula
658
The ventral rami of what cervical vertebrae innervate diaphragm?
C3, C4, and C5 keep the diaphragm alive!
659
At the level of rib 6, the internal thoracic artery divides into what two arteries?
Musculophrenic and superior epigastric arteries
660
What portion of the peri- cardium is adherent to the tunica adventitia of the great vessels?
Fibrous pericardium
661
The left anterior descending artery of the heart travels with what vein?
Great cardiac vein
662
What is the largest muscle in the body?
Gluteus maximus
663
The middle cardiac vein of the heart travels with what artery?
Posterior intraventricular artery
664
What is the ratio of the myocardial thickness of the atria: right ventricle: left ventricle?
1:3:9
665
What chamber of the heart comprises the: Sternal surface?
Right ventricle
666
Diaphragmatic surface?
Right ventricle and left ventricle
667
Left margin?
Left ventricle and left atrium
668
Right margin?
Right atria
669
Base?
Left atria
670
What structure does the left recurrent laryngeal nerve loop around before it ascends into the larynx?
The arch of the aorta
671
At what point does the axillary artery become the brachial artery?
When it crosses the teres major
672
What is the anatomic posi- tioning of the right and left gastric nerve plexus of the esophagus as they pass through the diaphragm?
LARP-Left goes Anterior and Right goes Posterior (because of the rotation of the gut -Remember your embryology!)
673
What muscles comprise the rotator cuff?
SITS-Subscapularis, Infraspinatus, Teres minor, & Supraspinatus
674
What are the five branches off the median cord of the brachial plexus?
Four Ms and a U- 1. Median 2. Medial antebrachial 3. Medial pectoral 4. Medial brachial cutaneus 3X 5. Ulnar
675
What are the five branches off the posterior cord of the brachial plexus?
STARS- 1. Upper Subscapularis 2. Thoracodorsal 3. Axillary ; & 4. Radial 5. Lower Subscapularis
676
What are the three branches off the lateral cord of the brachial plexus?
1. Lateral pectoral 2. Lateral head of the median 3. Musculocutaneus
677
What are the four branches off the brachial plexus that arise prior to the first rib?
1. Dorsal scapular 2. Suprascapular 3. Long thoracic 4. Nerve to subclavius
678
What nerve innervates the extensor compartment of the arm?
Radial nerve (It also innervates the extensor compartment of the forearm.)
679
What muscles insert in/on the intertubercular groove of the humerus?
"Lady between two Majors"- latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major, and teres major
680
What artery is found in the lateral compartment of the leg?
None. The peroneal artery is in the posterior compartment of the leg.
681
What muscle laterally rotates the femur to "unlock" the knee?
Popliteus
682
What bursa is inflamed in "clergyman's knee"?
Infrapatellar bursa
683
Where does the great saphenous vein terminate?
In the femoral vein
684
What comprises the "unhappy triad" of the knee?
1. Medial collateral ligament 2. Medial meniscus 3. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) The severity of injury to these ligaments is ranked from bad to worst in relation to how many of them are damaged, and they are usually damaged in the order listed.
685
What are the two branches off the external iliac artery before it becomes the femoral artery?
Circumflex iliac and inferior epigastric arteries
686
From which three sources does the adrenal gland get its blood supply?
1. Superior suprarenal artery (off inferior phrenic artery) 2. Directly off the abdominal aorta as the middle suprarenal artery 3. Inferior suprarenal artery off the renal artery
687
What are the three branches off the celiac artery?
1. Common hepatic artery 2. Splenic artery 3. Left gastric artery
688
What are the three main branches off the inferior mesenteric artery?
1. Left colic artery 2. Superior rectal artery 3. Sigmoid artery
689
The inferior thyroid artery is a branch of what vessel?
Thyrocervical trunk
690
What is the area of the carotid artery that is an 02 receptor?
Carotid body (The carotid sinus is a pressure receptor.)
691
What arteries join together forming the basilar artery?
Left and right vertebral arteries
692
What is the major difference between the veins in the face and the veins in the rest of the body?
No valves and no smooth muscle in the walls of the veins in the face
693
At what point does the sig- moid sinus become the internal jugular vein?
When it crosses the jugular foramina
694
What connects the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle?
Foramen of Monro
695
What connects the third and the fourth ventricles together?
Cerebral aqueduct
696
How does cerebrospinal fluid leave the fourth ventricle?
Through the foramina of Magendie (medial) and Luschka (lateral) M in Magendie = medial; L in Luschka = lateral.
697
What is the lymphatic drainage of the gonads?
Lumbar trunk nodes (Lymphatic drainage follows blood supply.)
698
What is the lymphatic drainage of the pelvic organs?
Internal iliac nodes
699
What are the five clinical signs of portal hypertension?
1. Caput medusae 2. Hemorrhoids 3. Retroperitoneal varices 4. Splenomegaly 5. Esophageal varices
700
What is the region of the body where all tonsillar tissue can be found?
Waldeyer's ring
701
What are the three functions of the nasal cavity?
It warms, moistens, and filters inspired air.
702
What region of the pharynx does the eustachian tube enter?
Nasopharynx
703
In which segment of the duodenum is the ampulla of Vater located?
Second segment
704
The duodenal/jejunal flexure is suspended from the posterior abdominal wall by what?
Ligament of Treitz
705
What are the three anatomic characteristics that differen- tiate the large bowel from the small bowel and the rectum?
1. Tinea coli 2. Haustra 3. Epiploic appendages
706
What is the artery of the embryonic midgut?
Superior mesenteric artery
707
What two ligaments together comprise the lesser omentum?
Gastrohepatic and hepatoduodenal
708
The quadrate and the caudate lobes are part of what side of the anatomic liver?
The right
709
What is the artery of the embryonic hindgut?
Inferior mesenteric artery
710
The hepatic duct and the cystic duct come together to form what?
Common bile duct
711
What muscle forms the "bed" for the kidney?
Quadratus lumborum
712
What ligament of the uterus houses the ovarian vessels?
Suspensory ligament of the ovary
713
What three muscles comprise the pes anserinus?
1. Sartorius 2. Gracilis 3. Semitendinous
714
What are the 10 retro- peritoneal organs?
1. Duodenum 2. Ascending Colon 3. Ureters 4. Pancreas 5. Suprarenals 6. Descending colon 7. Aorta 8. Kidneys 9. Rectum 10. Inferior vena cava
715
What is the only cranial nerve with the ability to regenerate?
CN I
716
What duct transmits secretions from the sub- mandibular gland to the oral cavity?
Wharton's duct
717
What are the boundaries of the posterior triangle of the neck?
The stern ocleidomastoid, the trapezius, and the clavicle
718
What are the contents of the adductor canal?
Femoral artery and vein and saphenous nerve
719
What are the contents of the submandibular triangle of the neck?
Submandibular gland, facial artery and vein, nerve to the mylohyoid
720
What carpal bones articulate with the radius?
Scaphoid and lunate
721
What are the borders of the anterior triangle of the neck?
Sternocleidomastoid, mandible, and midline of the neck
722
What are the six cranial nerves that innervate structures in the orbit?
1. CN II-vision 2. CN Vl-sensory (ophthalmic division) 3. CN VII-lacrimal gland LR6 (S04)3 (to remember nerves below): 4. CN VI-lateral rectus 5. CN IV-superior oblique 6. CN III-all other muscles of the eye
723
What muscle keeps the stapes taut against the oval window?
Stapedius muscle
724
What area of the posterior aspect of the eye has no photo receptors?
The optic disk is the blind spot.
725
What muscles are found in the superficial perineal pouch?
Superficial transverse perineal, ischiocavernous, and bulbocavernous muscles
726
What gland is found in the deep perineal pouch in men?
Bulbourethral gland; no gland is found in this pouch in women.
727
What pouch of the peri- neum houses the superficial fascia and the inferior fascia?
The deep perineal pouch (same as the urogenital diaphragm)
728
What gland is found in the superficial perineal pouch in men and women?
None in men, the greater vestibular gland in women
729
What are the five structures that traverse the spermatic cord?
1. Pampiniform plexus of veins 2. Vas deferens 3. Testicular artery 4. Nerves 5. Lymphatics
730
What are the borders of Hesselbach's triangle?
Rectus abdominis medially, Inferior epigastric vessels laterally, Inguinal ligament as the base
731
Which type of hernia goes through both the deep inguinal and superficial inguinal ring?
Indirect; a direct hernia goes directly through Hesselbach's triangle
732
What structure(s) traverse the diaphragm at the level of T10?
Esophagus and gastric plexus of nerves
733
What structure(s) traverse the diaphragm at the level of T12?
Aorta, azygous vein, and thoracic duct Remember: One at Ts, two at Tlo,three at T,Z.
734
What compartment of the lower extremity allows flexion of the toe, inversion of the foot, and plantar flexion of the foot?
Posterior compartment of the leg
735
How are the arm and the forearm positioned in "waiter's tip hand"?
The arm is medially rotated, and the forearm is extended and pronated.
736
What is the function of white rami communicans?
They are preganglionic sympathetic axons. They are white because they are myelinated.
737
What compartment of the lower extremity allows extension of the hip and flexion of the knee?
Posterior compartment of the thigh
738
What compartment of the lower extremity allows dorsiflexion, extension of the toes, and inversion of the foot?
Anterior compartment of the leg
739
What cervical nerves comprise the cervical plexus?
C1 to C4
740
What compartment of the lower extremity allows eversion and plantar flexion of the foot?
Lateral compartment of the leg
741
If the left hypoglossal nerve was damaged, which way would the tongue point?
To the left (The uvula points to affected side.)
742
In women, what is the name of the pouch between the bladder and the uterus called?
Uterovesical pouch
743
What component of the pelvic diaphragm forms the rectal sling (muscle of continence)?
Puborectalis
744
What is the name of the comma-shaped structure that is attached to the posterior aspect of the testes?
Epididymis
745
What is the structure of the uterus that projects above the opening of the uterine tubes?
Fundus
746
What is the region of the fallopian tube where fertilization most commonly occurs?
Ampulla
747
How can you access the lowermost point in the peritoneal cavity in women?
Via the posterior fomix of the vagina
748
Which type of hemorrhoids are painful?
External hemorrhoids; internal hemorrhoids lack pain fibers.
749
What are the five terminal branches of the facial nerve?
1. Temporal 2. Zygomatic 3. Buccal 4. Mandibular 5. Cervical (Two Zebras Bit My Clavicle.)
750
What two vessels come together to form the external jugular vein?
1. Posterior auricular vein 2. Posterior division of the retromandibular vein
751
What is the position of the eyeball if CN VI is lost?
Adducted
752
The thyroid gland receives blood from what two different sources?
1. Inferior thyroid off the thyrocervical trunk 2. Superior thyroid artery off the external carotid artery, and sometimes off the arch of the aorta as the thyroid ima artery
753
What postganglionic para-sympathetic ganglia is associated with: CN VII?
COPS Submandibular ganglion
754
What postganglionic para-sympathetic ganglia is associated with: CN IX?
Pterygopalatine and otic ganglion
755
What postganglionic para-sympathetic ganglia is associated with: CN X?
Terminal ganglion
756
What type of fibers are carried in the thoracic and lumbar splanchnics?
Preganglionic sympathetic fibers
757
How are preganglionic parasympathetic fibers carried to the embryonic hindgut?
Via pelvic splanchnics
758
What is the only portion of CN V that carries motor fibers?
Mandibular division (V3)
759
What portion of CN V is affected if the corneal reflex is lost?
Ophthalmic division (VI)
760
What cranial nerve is affected if you have a laterally deviated eye that is dilated with a ptosed eyelid?
CN III
761
Which cranial nerves are found in the midline of the brain stem?
CN I, 11, 111, VI, and XII ARN Add 1 + 1 = 2, 1 + 2 = VXF 3,1+2+3=6,1+2+ 3+6=12
762
What are the four muscles of mastication?
1. Masseter 2. Temporalis 3. Medial pterygoid 4. Lateral pterygoid
763
What happens to prevalence as: Incidence increases?
Increases
764
What happens to prevalence as: Duration increases?
Increases
765
What year of marriage is the peak year for divorce?
Fourth year
766
What is the formula for IQ?
MA/CA x 100 (MA = mental age, CA = chronologic age)
767
What are the three stages that children (aged 7 months to 5 years) go through when they are separated from a primary caregiver for a prolonged period of time?
1. Protest 2. Despair 3. Detachment
768
In statistics, what is the measured rate for: A whole population?
Crude rate
769
A subgroup of a population?
Specific rate
770
What percentage of suicides are committed by white men?
66%
771
What is the primary method of nonverbal communication of emotional states?
Facial expression (the second is vocal intonation)
772
In what age group is illness perceived as a punishment?
0 to 5 years
773
In screening tests, what happens to sensitivity as incidence increases?
Nothing; screening tests have nothing to do with incidence.
774
What are the four exceptions to informed consent?
1. Emergency 2. Waiver by parents 3. Competency (only courts determine) 4. Short-term intervention
775
In what age group are children more afraid of mutilation or separation from a parent than of death?
4 to 6 years of age
776
Which variable can an experimenter manipulate?
Independent variable
777
What percentage of dementia cases are caused by Alzheimer's disease?
66%
778
When is the only time that it is okay to break doctor- patient confidentiality?
If there is a threat of harm to others (Tarasoff's Duty to Warn)
779
Do newborns perceive a three dimensional world?
It is believed that newborns DO perceive a three-dimensional world, because in experiments they react defensively when an object is thrust in front of their faces.
780
What stage of sleep is associated with high pulse, blood pressure, and respiration rates, and is characterized by increased brain oxygen use, penile erection in males, and total paralysis of the skeletal muscles?
REM sleep (Remember as: Awake brain & paralyzed body.)
781
What three circumstances allow a child to be committed to institutional care?
1. The child poses an imminent danger to self or others. 2. The child is unable to care for himself daily (at the appropriate developmental level). 3. The parents/guardians have absolutely no control over the child, or will not promise to ensure the child's safety even though refusing hospitalization.
782
What is the leading cause of death in African American men between the ages of 15 and 24 years of age?
Homicide
783
What is the pattern of motor development?
Grasp before release Palms up before palms down Proximal to distal progression Ulnar to radial progression
784
What stage of sleep is associated with slow pulse and respiratory rates, a decrease in blood pressure, and involuntary skeletal muscle contractions?
Non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep (Remember as: Idle brain in an awake body.)
785
What type of study is prospective-that is, it "looks to see who gets sick" by defining a population at risk of being exposed to a disease?
Cohort study (also called prospective, follow-up, longitudinal, or incidence study)
786
What percentage of babies with an HIV-positive mother will test HIV-positive at birth?
100%. At birth the mother's HIV-infected cells can be detected in the baby's serum. Six months later, however, only 30% of these babies test positive.
787
What disorder begins before 30 years of age; occurs predominantly in women; and presents with multiple medical complaints, with at least four pain symptoms, two gastrointestinal symptoms, one sexual symptom, and one neurological symptom?
Somatization disorder (Symptoms are NOT intentionally produced.)
788
What is the progression of copying shapes?
Circle, cross, rectangle, square, triangle (alphabetic order)
789
What stage of sleep occupies the most time?
Stage 2
790
What statistical analysis is used when you want to bring together many different variables to determine one conclusion?
Meta-analysis
791
What is the leading cause of school dropouts among girls?
Pregnancy
792
What is the name of the somatoform disorder in which the person has symptoms or deficits suggestive of a medical condition, which are initiated or made worse by stressors?
Conversion disorder (The male-to-female ratio is about 1:5.)
793
In what stage of psychosexual development (according to Freud) do children resolve the Oedipus complex?
Latency stage (6 to 12 years)
794
On what part of the body does sleep deprivation have the greatest effect?
Cerebral cortex
795
What is the square of the standard deviation?
Variance
796
What is the application of an unavoidable stimulus followed by an animal's failure to cope (when coping would otherwise be possible) known as?
Learned helplessness (e.g., Skinner box)
797
In what somatoform disorder does the person present with a fear of illness despite appropriate medical evaluation and reassurance, and often uses the opening line "I think I have . . . "?
Hypochondriasis
798
In biostatistics, what are the three criteria required to increase power?
1. Large sample size 2. Large effect size 3. Type I error is greater
799
True or false-IQ is a predictor of academic achievement?
True-it is a predictor but not an indicator.
800
At what age does IQ become stable?
Age 5
801
On the psychosocial stressor scale, what factor receives the highest rating?
Death of a spouse
802
What is the term for the biologic predisposition to be sensitive to particular stimuli and to associate them with an unconditioned stimulus?
Preparedness
803
In what somatoform disorder with two subtypes does the patient experiences pain in a body part without any discernible organic cause (One subtype is associated with psychological factors, and the other with both physical and psychological factors.)?
Pain disorder
804
In what type of somatoform disorder does a person have an unrealistically negative evaluation of some aspect of his or her personal appearance?
Body dysmorphic disorder
805
At what stage of psychosexual development (according to Freud) do children fear castration?
Phallic stage (4 to 6 years)
806
True or false-only men have sexual refractory periods?
True-some women can have multiple successive orgasms without a break.
807
What is the term for involuntary vulgar or obscene utterances?
Coprolalia (seen 30% of the time as a feature of Tourette's syndrome)
808
At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do children: See death as irreversible?
Concrete operations (6 to 12 years)
809
At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do children: Have abstract thinking?
Formal operations ( > 12 years)
810
At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do children: Lack law of conservation and are egocentric?
Preoperational (2 to 6 years)
811
What hormone is inhibited by sleep?
TSH
812
With what stage of sleep are nightmares associated?
REM=`remember them" ;&
813
With what stage of sleep are night terrors associated?
Stage 4-they are not remembered
814
What percentage of patients with HIV have AIDS dementia complex before death?
70% to 95%
815
What is the triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus?
Dementia, gait apraxia, and urinary incontinence
816
What category of symptoms of schizophrenia associated with muscarinic receptors include affective flattening, social withdrawal, apathy, anhedonia, poverty of thought and of content of speech, and lack of interest?
Negative symptoms (type II)
817
In biostatistics, what type of error is due to chance?
Random error
818
Dementia is associated with a decrease in what neurotransmitter in the amygdala, hippocampus, and temporal neocortex?
Acetylcholine (ACh)
819
Name the incurable disease affecting adults which is a spongiform encephalopathy caused by a prion ; is fatal usually within 1 year of onset; results in cortical and cerebellar atrophy; and is characterized by a rapidly progressive dementia with myoclonus and EEG abnormalities?
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
820
What disease, occurring in patients approximately 40 years of age, is characterized by autosomal dominant inheritance associated with chromosome 4, atrophied caudate nucleus, choreoathetoid movements, and progressive dementia (Hint: Patients commonly commit suicide.)?
Huntington's chorea
821
What DSM-IV axis II diagnosis would the following patient fulfill: perfectionist, male, first born, preoccupied with rules, harsh discipline upbringing, lacks sense of humor, inflexible, miserly?
Obsessive-compulsive
822
What symptoms of schizophrenia associated with dopamine receptors include delusions, hallucinations, and agitation?
Positive symptoms (type I)
823
In biostatistics, what type of error has unanticipated factors that obscure the relationship and cause a bias?
Confounding error
824
What is the most frequently occurring value in a set?
Mode
825
What is the difference between the highest and the lowest scores in a set?
Range
826
What type of study has diffusional effects if you separate the groups and test the entire population?
Community trial
827
What type of study is under the greatest possible degree of control of the investigator?
Experimental study
828
In what type of skew is the tail to the right and the mean greater than the median?
Positive skew
829
In what type of error is the null hypothesis rejected when it is true?
Type I error (alpha error)
830
If the P-value is less than or equal to .05, what do you do to the null hypothesis?
Reject it
831
What is the single best predictor of suicide?
Previous suicide attempt
832
What is the leading cause of death in men between the ages of 25 and 44 years of age?
AIDS
833
What is the foremost cause of cancer death in both men and women?
Lung cancer
834
What are the top three causes of infant mortality?
1. Birth defects 2. Low birth weight 3. SIDS
835
What is the most common form of sexually transmitted disease (STD)?
Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection
836
What is the primary cause of injury to American women?
Domestic abuse
837
What is the leading cause of preventable mental retardation?
Fetal alcohol syndrome
838
What is the most abused drug for people of all ages?
Alcohol
839
What is the most common bacterial STD?
Chlamydia trachomatis infection
840
How many teenagers become pregnant each year?
1,000,000
841
What drug is used to prevent alcohol consumption by blocking aldehyde dehydrogenase?
Disulfiram
842
Which drug is used to treat opiate withdrawal, attention deficit hyperactive disorder (ADHD), and sometimes Tourette's syndrome?
Clonidine
843
Which drug is used to treat the respiratory depression associated with an overdose of opioids?
Naloxone or naltrexone
844
Which opioid agonist, more addictive than heroin, is used in the treatment of heroin dependence?
Methadone
845
What type of reinforcement strengthens each response and involves fast learning and fast extinction?
Continuous reinforcement
846
According to operant conditioning theory, what type of reinforcement is occurring in avoidance behaviors such as phobias and compulsive rituals?
Negative reinforcement
847
What form of learning occurs when, for example, a child watches her mother react in fear to a snake, and learns to be afraid of snakes?
Modeling or observational learning
848
What is the term for silently removing a reinforcement without the patient's awareness?
Fading
849
What is the name of the technique used to treat avoidance or obsessive-compulsive behaviors, in which patients are gradually confronted with the objects or situations they fear?
Exposure
850
In what type of conditioning is the stimulus that produces a deviant behavior paired with an unpleasant stimulus?
Aversive conditioning
851
What is the term for removal of a stimulus in order to stop a behavior?
Extinction
852
True or false according to social learning theory, people who believe that luck, chance, or the actions of others control their fate have an internal locus of control?
False-these beliefs are characteristic of people with an external locus of control.
853
Which IQ test is used for children between 4 and 6 years of age?
Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence (WPPSI)
854
What is the most widely used projective test?
Rorschach ink blot test
855
What is the range of the low-average IQ?
80 to 89
856
What term describes the ability of a test to measure something consistently?
Reliability
857
What is the name of the most widely used personality test consisting of 550 true/ false questions, in which the overall score is more important than an evaluation on an individual scale?
Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)
858
What was the first formal IQ test, which is used for persons 2 to 18 years of age, proves best for children who are 6 years of age, and is used for the very bright or the impaired?
Stanford-Binet scale
859
What is the range of the borderline IQ?
70 to 79
860
What court case decided by the New York Court of Appeals is know as the "best interest standard" case (In the situation of an incompetent patient, this case supports decision making based on what a reasonable person would want, given the patient's condition.)?
Brother Fox (Eichner v. Dillon)
861
What court case states that a woman has a right to privacy and to abort a fetus?
Roe v. Wade
862
If short-term memory and long-term memory are spared, but new learning is impaired, what is the location of the lesion?
Medial temporal lobe lesion
863
What is the term for return to an earlier stage of development?
Regression
864
What is the defense mechanism in which the person perceives his or her unacceptable feelings, thoughts, or impulses as belonging to another person?
Projection
865
What four characteristics define the sick role?
1. Exempt from normal responsibilities 2. Not to blame for the illness 3. Obligated to get well 4. Obligated to seek help
866
What is the defense mechanism in which a patient projects his or her thoughts, feelings, or wishes onto the physician or therapist?
Transference
867
What is the term for the state of being arrested in a stage of development?
Fixation
868
According to Freud, what facet of the psyche represents the internalized ideals and values of one's parents?
Superego
869
What term refers to acting out the reverse of an unacceptable behavior?
Undoing
870
What is the defense mechanism which involves "unconscious forgetting"?
Repression
871
In psychoanalytic theory, which mature defense mechanism uses comedy to express feelings and thoughts without causing personal discomfort?
Humor
872
Per Freud, with what part of the unconscious are sex and aggression (instincts) associated?
Id
873
What is the term for: Wasting away due to malnutrition?
Cachexia
874
What is the term for: Sexual energy?
Cathexis
875
What is the term for: A purging of emotions?
Catharsis
876
Which defense mechanism involves preparation for future events?
Anticipation
877
What term describes conscious forgetting?
Suppression
878
What is the term for the mature defense mechanism whereby one helps others with no apparent expectation of help in return?
Altruism
879
What five qualities in an object attract a newborn's attention?
1. Largeness 2. Brightness 3. Contrasts 4. Curves 5. Complex design
880
What type of depression can occur in an infant if there is prolonged separation from the primary caregiver?
Anaclitic depression
881
School phobia can result from failure to resolve what?
Separation anxiety
882
At what stage of sleep do you see sleep spindles and K complexes on EEG?
Stage 2
883
What hormone level increases in the first 3 hours of sleep?
Prolactin
884
Which stages of sleep decrease in length when a person grows older?
REM, non-REM, and total sleep time
885
What hormone increases at nighttime and is associated with seasonal affective disorder?
Melatonin
886
What are the five Kiibler-Ross stages of adjustment to dying?
1. Denial 2. Anger 3. Bargaining 4. Depression 5. Acceptance
887
What five things are checked in the APGAR test?
1. Sldn color 2. Heart rate 3. Reflexes 4. Muscle tone 5. Respiratory rate APGAR Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration
888
A baby's smile at birth is known as what?
Endogenous smile
889
What is the term for a baby's fear of unfamiliar people that begins at about 6 months of age, peaks at about 8 months, and is usually gone at 12 months?
Stranger anxiety
890
What stage of sleep is assodated with theta waves and the disappearance of alpha waves?
Stage 1
891
At what stage of sleep is human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) output elevated?
Stage 4
892
What is the most prevalent sexual disorder in men?
Secondary impotence
893
What is the term used when someone has sexual orientation distress?
Ego-dystonic sexual orientation
894
What is the name of the painful involuntary muscle contraction of the outer one third of the vagina?
Vaginismus
895
What is the term for inability to have an orgasm?
Anorgasmia (occurs in 35% of women)
896
What is the term for recurrent and persistent pain during intercourse?
Dyspareunia
897
What neurotransmitter produces arousal and wakefulness?
Dopamine
898
What hormone initiates sleep?
Serotonin
899
What hormone increases during REM sleep?
Acetylcholine (ACh)
900
What is the term for the lack of respiration during sleep?
Sleep apnea
901
What hormone decreases during REM sleep?
Norepinephrine (NE)
902
What are the four pathognomonic signs of narcolepsy?
1. Cataplexy 2. Sleep attacks 3. Sleep paralysis 4. Hypnagogic and hypnopompic hallucinations (disorders of REM)
903
At what stage of sleep does bruxism (grinding of the teeth) occur?
Stage 2
904
What is an irrational fear called?
A phobia
905
What three laboratory tests are used to test for probable depression?
1. Test for decreased levels of 3-methoxy-4-hydroxyphenlyglycol (MHPG), which is an NE metabolite 2. TRH stimulation test 3. Dexamethasone suppression test
906
What is the most common psychiatric illness in women, which presents as a vague feeling of apprehension or worrying accompanied by one or more body sensations?
Generalized anxiety disorder
907
An adult with a 2-year history of depressed mood, low energy, feelings of hopelessness, and low selfesteem, but with no major depressive episodes or manic episodes has what disorder?
Dysthymic disorder
908
What is the disorder in which the patient has concurrent symptoms of schizophrenia and depression or mania?
Schizoaffective disorder
909
In statistics, what form of bias is at work when the experimenter's expectation induces results?
Pygmalion effect
910
Someone who is excessively shy, has a fear of rejection, and is socially isolated has what type of personality disorder?
Avoidant personality disorder
911
Name the personality disorders described below: A person who has a longstanding feeling of mistrust or suspicion, no hallucinations, no delusions, and no antisocial behavior?
Paranoid personality disorder
912
Name the personality disorders described below: A person who is uncomfortable not being the center of attention, is an attention seeker, and has seductive behavior that is colorful, dramatic, and extroverted?
Histrionic personality disorder
913
Name the personality disorders described below: A person who gets others to assume responsibility, has difficulty expressing disagreement, and often has an abusive spouse?
Dependent personality disorder
914
What type of seizure is associated with young children and involves a brief loss of consciousness with minor motor activity?
Petit mal (absence) seizure
915
What is the drug of choice for treatment of Petit Mal seizures?
Ethosuximide
916
What neurotransmitter is responsible for allergic conditions, and regulates emotions and acid secretions in the stomach?
Histamine
917
What is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter of the brain?
Glutamic acid
918
What is the major neurotransmitter of sensory neurons for pain?
Substance P
919
Increased levels of what neurotransmitter, released from the raphe nuclei of the brain stem, is used to treat depression and also to regulate homeostasis?
Serotonin
920
What naturally occurring substances mimic the effects of opiates?
Enkephalins
921
What neurodegenerative disorder is associated with frontal and temporal lobe atrophy and is manifested primarily as dementia?
Pick's disease
922
What disease causes ceruloplasmin deficiency, hepatolenticular degeneration, and Kayser-Fleischer rings?
Wilson's disease
923
What is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter to the spinal cord and the brain stem?
Glycine
924
The effect on a person's behavior caused by the act of being studied is called what?
Hawthorns effect
925
What type of bias is involved when you ask leading questions?
Sampling bias
926
What level of retardation is involved if a person has an IQ of 20 to 34 and cannot be trained but can learn basic habits?
Severe
927
What is the half-way point on the x-axis of a gaussian curve?
Median
928
As prevalence increases, what happens to: Sensitivity?
No change
929
As prevalence increases, what happens to: Specificity?
No change
930
As prevalence increases, what happens to: Positive predictive value?
Increases
931
As prevalence increases, what happens to: Negative predictive value?
Decreases
932
In medical screening, what is the term for: The proportion of individ uals with a positive test result for the disease that the test is intended to reveal?
Sensitivity
933
In medical screening, what is the term for: The total percentage of correctly identified subjects for what you are testing?
Accuracy
934
What rate is represented by the total number of cases divided by the population at risk?
Prevalence rate
935
What is the name for the type of study in which neither the investigator nor the subjects know which participants are receiving the placebo (i.e., the control group) and which are receiving the test drug?
Double-blind study
936
What is the term for the form of bias in which preconception leads to a biased interpretation?
Prejudice
937
What is the most scientifically rigorous study in which subjects in a population are randomly allocated into groups?
Randomized controlled study
938
In what form of trial is it unethical to withhold treatment from any specific group?
Crossover trial (e.g., azidothymidine [AZT] trials)
939
In what type of skew is the tail to the left, and the median greater than the mean?
Negative skew
940
In what form of drug trial do researchers administer regimens to humans to evaluate the efficacy and safety of a drug?
Clinical trial
941
What term describes the average on a normal curve?
Mean
942
In reference to the tail on a curve, what is the greatest value-the mean, median, or mode?
The mean (mean > median > mode)
943
What type of scale has a true zero point and orders items with equal intervals?
Ratio scale
944
What statement is the opposite of what the experimenter hopes to prove?
Null hypothesis
945
What is the degree to whichtwo measures are related?
Correlation coefficient (does not employ causality)
946
What term denotes the probability that the null hypothesis will be rejected if it is indeed false?
Power
947
What is used to predict one variable from another with interval data only?
Regression
948
What type of error is made when you fail to reject the null hypothesis when it is indeed false?
Type II error (beta error)
949
What do you do with the null hypothesis if the P-value is greater than .05?
Do not reject the null hypothesis.
950
If the confidence interval contains 1.0, what would this indicate?
There is no significant effect.
951
What test is used to compare two interval scales?
Pearson correlation
952
What type of scale ranks with an equal distance between groups?
Interval scale
953
What type of scale ranks without distance or set spaces between the groups?
Ordinal scale
954
What percentage of a normal curve falls between ± 1 standard deviation?
68%
955
A 95% confidence score means the z score is equal to what?
2.0
956
What is the term for the hypothesis that the experimenter hopes to prove true?
Alternative hypothesis
957
What test compares two ordinal levels?
Spearman correlation
958
What does a one-tailed null hypothesis state?
That one group is better or worse than the other (depending on what is asked); it is directional
959
What does a two-tailed null hypothesis state?
That two groups are not the same; they are nondirectional
960
What test is used when one interval scale and two nominal data sets are available?
Two-way analysis of variance (ANOVA)
961
On a normal curve, what percentage of the curve falls between ± 2 standard deviations?
95.5%
962
What is the most common cancer in men?
Prostate
963
What is the most common cancer in women?
Breast
964
What is the most commonly reported STD?
Gonorrhea
965
What is the most commonly made diagnosis in men?
Hypertension
966
What is the most commonly made diagnosis in women?
Pregnancy
967
What is the most common cause of: Hospital admissions?
GI disturbances
968
What is the most common cause of: Hospital days?
Cardiovascular disease
969
What is the most common cause of: Days lost from work?
Upper respiratory tract infection
970
What is the most common cause of: Ambulatory clinic visits?
Back pain
971
What is the most common cause of: Work-related injury?
Musculoskeletal problem
972
What are the CAGE questions of alcoholism?
1. Cut down 2. Annoyed about criticism 3. Guilty 4. Eye opener
973
What type of learning is described as an old response to a new behavior?
Classical conditioning
974
What type of learning is described as a new response to an old behavior?
Operant conditioning
975
What is the tendency to respond to related stimuli with the same response or a similar response?
Stimulus generalization
976
What term describes any stimulus that will increase the probability of a response?
Reinforcement
977
In classical conditioning, what is the cause of the original response?
Unconditioned stimulus
978
What response occurs when a conditioned stimulus is added to an unconditioned stimulus?
Conditioned response
979
What is used to stop stimulus generalization and discontinue a reinforcement that is maintaining an operant?
Extinction
980
What sort of ratio is on a fixed time and has a continuous schedule?
Fixed interval ratio
981
In this form of reinforcement, not every response is reinforced, and the response is hard to extinguish and slow to be learned?
Intermittent reinforcement
982
What technique uses successive reinforcements to establish a behavior?
Shaping (funneling)
983
What treatment used to treat anxiety and phobias is slow, stepwise, and based on counterconditioning?
Systemic desensitization
984
What is the term for a stimulus which is introduced: To encourage a particular behavior?
Positive reinforcement
985
What is the term for a stimulus which is introduced: To stop a behavior?
Punishment
986
What is it called when a stimulus unconsciously controls a behavior?
Stimulus control
987
What type of learning provides the organism with information about internal functioning via monitoring of autonomic function?
Biofeedback
988
What method of learning involves a faced number of responses to obtain reinforcement?
Fixed ratio
989
According to Rotter's social learning theory, people who feel that they are in control of their own lives, and who believe that effort, care, and persistence pays off have what locus of control?
Internal locus of control
990
What IQ test is used for persons aged 6 to 17?
Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children-Revised (WISC-R)
991
What method of learning involves a varying number of responses to give reinforcement?
Variable ratio schedule
992
What is the range of the average IQ?
90-109
993
Which IQ test is used for persons 17 years of age and older?
Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale-Revised (WAIS-R)
994
Below what IQ level is a person perceived as being mentally retarded?
Below 69
995
What method of learning delivers the reinforcement after an unpredictable period of time?
Variable interval ratio
996
What are the three advanced directives?
1. Oral directive 2. Living will 3. Healthy power of attorney
997
What defense mechanism involves temporary inhibition of thoughts or impulses, in which the person is aware that he is "forgetting"?
Blocking
998
What defense mechanism involves defining things as either "bad" or "good"?
Splitting
999
The qualities of an object are internalized, obliterating the distinction between subject and object, in what defense mechanism?
Introjection
1000
What defense mechanism is operating when a person avoids becoming aware of some painful aspect of reality?
Denial
1001
What term describes the accuracy of a test?
Validity (You need reliability for validity.)
1002
What court case upheld the parents' decision to forgo potentially lifesaving surgery for their infant with Down syndrome and tracheoesophageal fistula (known as the "letting nature take its course" case)?
The Infant Doe case
1003
What are the three surrogate criteria?
1. What did the patient want, 2. What would the patient say, 3. What is in the patient's best interests
1004
What court case established that the right of decision belongs to the incompetent patient by virtue of the right of autonomy and privacy, and that a surrogate can draw a conclusion about the wants and needs of the incompetent person, based on knowing the patient?
Karen Ann Quinlan case
1005
What are the four most common defense mechanisms used by obsessive-compulsive persons?
Isolation of affect, Undoing, Reaction formation, Intellectualization
1006
What defense mechanism shifts an emotion or drive from one idea or object to another?
Displacement
1007
What defense mechanism involves the separation of oneself from one's experiences?
Dissociation
1008
What mature defense mechanism substitutes socially acceptable intentions for those that are unacceptable, allowing instincts to be refocused rather than blocked?
Sublimation
1009
The indirect expression of hostility is known as what?
Passive-aggressive behavior
1010
What defense mechanism consists of an emotional or behavioral outburst to cover up an underlying feeling or idea?
Acting out
1011
What is the defense methanism in which the person uses a self-serving explanation for a belief or behavior in order to avoid the stress of admitting his or her true motivation?
Rationalization
1012
What defense mechanism involves the separation of ideas from the feelings origiinally associated with them?
Isolation
1013
What type of smile appears at 8 weeks of age in reaction to faces?
Exogenous smile
1014
What defense mechanism involves excessive thinking to avoid affective expression?
Intellectualization
1015
In what stages of sleep, known as "deep sleep," are delta waves seen on EEG?
Stages 3 and 4
1016
In what stage of sleep, comprising 25% of total sleep time, are saw-tooth waves seen on EEG?
REM stage
1017
What type of smile occurs when a 14-month-old baby smiles at her mother?
Preferential smile
1018
What are the three characteristics of attention deficit hyperactive disorder (ADHD)?
1. Short attention span 2. Impulsivity 3. Hyperactivity
1019
What is the drug of choice for treating ADHD?
Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
1020
Describe the normal bereavement period?
The person identifies with the deceased. The person has low suicidal tendencies. The period lasts for less than 6 months.
1021
What percentage of stage 4, REM, and total sleep time is "made up" after sleep deprivation?
Stage 4-80% REM-50% Total sleep-33%
1022
Name the reaction that appears in babies when they are temporarily deprived of their usual caretaker. (This reaction usually begins around 6 months of age, peaks around 8 months, and decreases at 12 months.)?
Separation anxiety
1023
What are the characteristics of pathologic grief (depression)?
Greater than I year in duration, Abnormal identification with the deceased, Suicidal tendencies
1024
What is the term used to describe ejaculation before or just after beginning a sexual encounter?
Premature ejaculation
1025
What disorder is defined by the following criteria: occurs during stages 3 and 4 of sleep; can't be diagnosed until 5 years of age; occurs more often in boys; occurs at least 2x a week for at least 3 consecutive months; and causes distress or impairment in social functioning?
Enuresis (bedwetting)
1026
In what lobe of the cerebral cortex is the visual center located?
Occipital lobe
1027
What disorder seen in late adolescence is characterized by normal weight, cavities, calluses on the back of hands, enlarged parotid glands, esophageal scars, and electrolyte imbalances?
Bulimia
1028
Name the level of retardation in which the person has an IQ of 35 to 49 and is considered "trainable"?
Moderate
1029
What is the level of retardation of a person with an IQ of less than 20 who requires total care?
Profound
1030
What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with: alpha-Blockers?
Impaired ejaculation
1031
What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with: Serotonin?
Inhibited orgasm
1032
What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with: beta-Blockers?
Impotence
1033
What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with: Trazodone?
Priapism
1034
What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with: Dopamine agonists?
Increased erection and libido
1035
What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with: Neuroleptics?
Erectile dysfunction
1036
What is the level of retardation of a person with an IQ of 50 to 70 who is self-supportive with help (This category includes approximately 85% of all mentally retarded persons.)?
Mild
1037
What is the diagnosis of a child who is oblivious to the external world; has delayed language development and pronoun reversal; participates in head-banging; inflicts self-injury; and has no separation anxiety?
Autism
1038
What is the probable diagnosis of a person who has a depressed mood and hypomania for more than 2 years (not caused by substance abuse)?
Cyclothymic (non-psychotic bipolar) disorder
1039
What four factors are indicators of a good prognosis for a person with schizophrenia?
1. Late onset 2. Acute onset 3. Presence of positive symptoms 4. Paranoid type
1040
What form of schizophrenia has no prominent psychotic symptoms at evaluation?
Residual or treated
1041
What disorder that carries a high mortality rate is most often associated with girls in their mid-teens who weigh less than 85% of ideal body weight, have primary or secondary amenorrhea and presence of lanugo?
Anorexia nervosa
1042
What disorder is described by the following characteristics: 41-year-old woman of low socioeconomic status; decreased levels of dopamine, thyroid-stimulating hormone, and norepinephrine; depressed mood most of the time; diminished interest and pleasure; feelings of worthless; loss of energy and hypersomnia; weight loss; symptoms lasting longer than 2 weeks?
Major depression (unipolar)
1043
What is the disorder associated with an abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood (manic episode) that alternates with depression?
Bipolar disorder
1044
What lobe of the cerebral cortex is responsible for emotion, memory, and language?
Temporal lobe
1045
What neurotransmitter plays a significant role in Alzheimer's disease and memory function, and is also responsible for erections in men?
Acetylcholine (ACh)
1046
What lobe of the cerebral cortex is responsible for speech, personality, memory, abstract thoughts, and high-order functions?
Frontal lobe
1047
What is the term for bilateral occlusion of the posterior cerebral arteries resulting in cortical blindness, where the patient denies he or she is blind?
Anton's syndrome (Visual hallucinations are common in relation to occipital epileptic foci.)
1048
What lobe of the cerebral cortex is associated with motivation, memory, emotion, violent behaviors, and social-sexual behaviors?
Limbic lobe
1049
What hemisphere is used for language and (for most people) is the dominant hemisphere?
Left hemisphere (Left = Language.)
1050
What lobe is responsible for intellectual processing of sensory information for visual-spatial tasks?
The nondominant parietal lobe (usually the right)
1051
What is the name of a report made from the outcome of a single clinical subject?
Case report
1052
What is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter of the brain that is associated with anxiety?
Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
1053
Movement disorders are associated with what dopamine pathway (what part of the brain)?
Nigrostriatal pathways (basal ganglia)
1054
What neurotransmitter is low in depression and high in mania, is found in the locus ceruleus, and is the neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system?
Norepinephrine (NE)
1055
In which syndrome does a person present with intentionally produced physical ailments with the intent to assume the "sick role"?
Munchausen's syndrome (factitious disorder)
1056
What dopamine pathway is associated with the "positive" symptoms of psychosis?
Mesolimbic-cortical pathway
1057
The tuberoinfundibular system is associated with what two hormones?
1. Dopamine (prolactin inhibitory protein [PIP])-inhibits release of prolactin 2. Prolactin
1058
In medical screening, what is the term for the proportion of truly disease-free individuals who are correctly identified as not having the disease?
Specificity
1059
Of the number of people who are tested as being negative, the percentage that is truly negative is known as what?
Negative predictive value
1060
What type of study looks forward in time (the subjects are followed into the future) and takes a long time to complete?
Prospective study
1061
What type of study examines the relationship between diseases and other variables at one particular time, but not causality?
Cross-sectional study
1062
What study reports on the outcome of a group of clinical subjects?
Case series reports
1063
What type of study looks back in time to provide some indication of past circumstances?
Retrospective study
1064
Of the people who tested positive, what is the term for the percentage that is actually positive for the disease?
Positive predictive value
1065
What test is used when you have one interval data, one set of nominal data, and only two groups?
T-test
1066
In a classic gaussian curve, what percentage of the curve is between: ± 3 standard deviations (SDs)?
99.7%
1067
In a classic gaussian curve, what percentage of the curve is between: The mean and ± 1 SD?
34%
1068
In a classic gaussian curve, what percentage of the curve is between: ± 1 SD and ± 2 SDs?
13.5%
1069
In a classic gaussian curve, what percentage of the curve is between: ± 2 SDs and ± 3 SDs?
2.4%
1070
In a classic gaussian curve, what percentage of the curve is between: ± 3 SDs?
0.1501%
1071
What is the range for a high-average IQ?
110 to 119
1072
What test is used when you have one set of interval data and one set of nominal data with more than two groups?
One-way analysis of variance (ANOVA)
1073
What test measures spatial construction and drawing tasks?
Benton visual retention test
1074
What type of personality is impatient, competitive, preoccupied with deadlines, highly involved with work, and has a high prevalence and incidence of coronary attacks?
Type A personality
1075
What test uses nominal data only and has more than 25 subjects associated with the study?
Chi square
1076
What test uses nominal data only, uses a 2 X 2 table, and has fewer than 25 subjects?
Fischer exact test
1077
In what two areas of learning do boys often excel?
Mathematics and visual-spatial tasks
1078
What is the range of superior IQ?
120 to 129
1079
What form of test shows one or more persons in ambiguous situations and then requires the patient to tell a story about what is going on in the picture?
Thematic apperception test (TAT)
1080
Name the disorder described by the following symptoms: delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, disorganized or catatonic behavior, affective flattening, social dysfunction; persistence for at least 6 months?
Schizophrenia
1081
Name the type of schizophrenia in which the person is preoccupied with delusions of persecution, frequently has auditory hallucinations, and shows little or no impairment in cognitive testing?
Paranoid schizophrenia
1082
In what form of schizophrenia is the person child-like, primitively active but aimless, and most regressed?
Disorganized schizophrenia
1083
Name the form of schizophrenia in which the person presents in complete stupor, has a rigid posture with violent/destructive outbursts, is mute, and has psychomotor disturbances?
Catatonic schizophrenia
1084
What personality disorder does an estimated 75% of the total prison population have?
Antisocial personality disorder
1085
What is the probable diagnosis of a person who suddenly and unexpectedly leaves home, cannot recall his past, and is confused about his identity?
Dissociative fugue
1086
What form of amnesia is usually retrograde, with the patient unable to remember facts about himself?
Psychogenic amnesia (Amnesia associated with head trauma is usually antegrade.)
1087
What is the probable personality disorder of: A person who is shy and who has always been eccentric and content to be alone?
Schizoid personality disorder
1088
What is the probable personality disorder of: A person who seems a little odd and who has magical thinking, ideas of reference, and illusions?
Schizotypal personality disorder
1089
How does 1-tryptophan affect sleep?
It increases REM and total sleep time.
1090
What disorder is described by the following: associated with great apprehension and fear; the person has three or more attacks in a 3-week period; the attacks can happen "out of the blue" and can be induced; the drug of choice is alprazolam (Xanax)?
Panic disorder
1091
In what personality disorder may a person be frequently suicidal, impulsive, have intense, unstable relationships, engage in risky behaviors, have fear of abandonment, and even self-mutilate?
Borderline personality disorder
1092
The typical person with this disorder is an obsessive-compulsive 7-year-old boy with an elevated dopamine level, ADHD, and multiple motor/vocal tics for longer than 1 year?
Tourette's syndrome
1093
What medications are used to treat this disorder?
Haloperidol (Haldol), pimozide, and clonidine
1094
What type of seizure involves no loss of consciousness, altered sensory perception, and an EEG focal spike or a spike with a slow wave pattern?
Simple partial seizure
1095
What is the probable diagnosis of a person with fragile self-esteem who is prone to depression, has a grandiose sense of self-importance, and needs constant attention?
Narcissistic personality disorder
1096
What type of seizure is characterized by major motor activity, loss of consciousness, and no true aura?
Grand mal seizure
1097
Name the type of seizure in which the person smells "burning rubber," has hallucinations and illusions, demonstrates automatism after aura, experiences focal sensory perceptions, and loses consciousness?
Complex partial seizure
1098
What acute and reversible disease involving a thiamine deficiency is characterized by ataxia, nystagmus, and ophthalmoplegia?
Wernicke's encephalopathy
1099
What disorder involving a lesion of the frontal lobe (Brodmann's area 44) is characterized by the following: there is no problem with comprehension; the person has trouble repeating statements; speech is broken, telegraphic, and ungrammatical; the person may be mute; and the person may be very frustrated?
Broca's aphasia
1100
Where is the lesion if the person refuses to accept that there is a problem, neglects the left side, and has constructional apraxia?
Right parietal lobe
1101
What disease involves a lesion of the superior temporal gyros (Brodmann's area 22), impaired comprehension, fluent but incoherent and rapid speech, and hyperactivity, but no muscle weakness?
Wernicke's aphasia
1102
What is the most common dementia in persons older than 65 years of age that is more common in women, and that involves diffuse atrophy, flattened cortical sulci, senile plaques, enlarged cerebral ventricles, neuro6brillary tangles, granulovascular changes, and ß-2 amyloid with T proteins?
Alzheimer's disease
1103
A lesion in what lobe of the cerebral cortex would present with euphoria, auditory hallucinations, delusions, and thought disorders?
Dominant temporal lobe lesion
1104
What form of dementia is found in hypertensive patients, usually affects men between the ages of 60 and 70 years, is characterized by decremental or patchy deterioration in cognitive function owing to the cardiovascular disease, is of sudden onset, and has a step-wise progression?
Multi-infarct dementia (vascular)
1105
With what lesion do you see irritability and a decreased visual and music ability?
Lesion in right temporal lobe
1106
Where is the lesion if the patient has apathy, aggression, and memory problems?
Limbic system
1107
Where is the lesion if the patient presents with apathy, decreased drive, poor grooming, decreased attention span, and a poor ability to abstract?
Dorsal prefrontal cortex lesion
1108
In what disease does the patient present with a history of insidious onset, worsening cognition, a normal level of consciousness, and often "sundowning"?
Dementia
1109
What reversible disease is characterized by a rapid onset in days to weeks, fluctuating levels of consciousness, impaired memory, and visual hallucinations?
Delirium
1110
Where is the lesion if the patient presents with fearfulness, explosive moods, decreased inhibition, withdrawal, and violent outbursts?
Orbitomedial frontal cortex lesion
1111
What syndrome is characterized by the following: bilateral medial temporal lobe lesion, placidity, hyperorality, hypersexuality, hyperreactivity to visual stimuli, and visual agnosia?
Kliiver-Bucy syndrome
1112
If there is a lesion in the lateral hypothalamus, how does the patient present?
With anorexia and starvation
1113
In what chronic and irreversible disease does the patient present with thiamine deficiency, confusion, confabulations, and amnesia?
Korsakoff's syndrome (alcohol induced amnestic syndrome)
1114
Where is the lesion if short-term memory is spared, while long-term memory and new learning are impaired?
Hippocampus
1115
Where is the lesion if the patient presents with hyperphagia and obesity?
Ventromedial hypothalamus
1116
How is sleep affected in a person with alcohol intoxication?
Decreased REM sleep and REM rebound during withdrawal
1117
What happens to REM, REM latency, and stage 4 sleep during major depression?
Increased REM sleep, decreased REM latency, and decreased stage 4 sleep, leading to early morning awakening
1118
What aspects of sleep are affected during benzodiazepine use?
They decrease REM and stage 4 sleep
1119
How do barbiturates affect sleep?
Rebound insomnia, Decrease in REM sleep
1120
What is the rate-limiting step of: Glycolysis?
PFK-1
1121
What is the rate-limiting step of: Gluconeogenesis?
Pyruvate carboxylase
1122
What is the rate-limiting step of: TCA (Krebs) cycle?
Isocitrate dehydrogenase
1123
What is the rate-limiting step of: Glycogenesis (glycogen synthesis)?
Glycogen synthase
1124
What is the rate-limiting step of: Glycogenolysis?
Glycogen phosphorylase
1125
What is the rate-limiting step of: Hexose monophosphate (HMP) shunt?
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G-6-PD)
1126
What is the rate-limiting step of: Fatty acid synthesis?
Acetyl CoA carboxylase
1127
What is the rate-limiting step of: ß-Oxidation?
Carnithine acyltransferase I
1128
What is the rate-limiting step of: Ketogenolysis?
HMG CoA synthase
1129
What is the rate-limiting step of: Cholesterol synthesis?
HMG CoA reductase
1130
What is the rate-limiting step of: Urea cycle?
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
1131
What is the rate-limiting step of: Heme synthesis?
Delta-Aminolevulinic acid (ALA) synthase
1132
What is the rate-limiting step of: Pyrimidine synthesis?
Aspartate transcarbomylase
1133
What is the rate-limiting step of: Purine synthesis?
Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate (PRPP) glutamyl amido transferase
1134
What is the only fatty acid that is gluconeogenic?
Propionic acid
1135
Aldose reductase converts galactose to what?
Galactitol
1136
How many ATPs are generated from glycolysis?
8
1137
In the mitochondria, what complex is needed in order for pyruvate carboxylase to catalyze the reaction from pyruvate to OAA?
Biotin, ATP, and COZ
1138
What is the enzyme for the oxidative reaction in glycolysis?
Glyceraldehyde dehydrogenase
1139
What three substrates control the enzyme phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK) for the conversion of OAA to pyruvate in the cytoplasm?
1. Cortisol (stimulates PEPCK) 2. Glucagon 3. Guanine triphosphate (GTP)
1140
What is released from the reaction of phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK) for the conversion of OAA to pyruvate?
C02
1141
What enzyme deficiency causes cataracts, galactosemia, and galactosuria?
Galactokinase deficiency
1142
The addition of D-2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (D-2,3-BPG) to HbA does what to the 02 saturation curve?
Shifts it to the right
1143
In what benign condition do you see excretion of large amounts of fructose after ingestion?
Essential fructosuria (fructokinase deficiency)
1144
What is the glycolysis enzyme found only in the liver?
Glucokinase
1145
How many ATPs are generated per acetyl CoA?
12 (Not 15-that would be the answer if you included the pyruvate to acetyl CoA step.)
1146
What enzyme is associated with the substrate-level phosphorylation in the TCA cycle?
Succinate thiokinase
1147
The availability of OAA and acetyl CoA regulates what pathway?
TCA cycle
1148
What complex of the electron transport chain (ETC) is inhibited by malonate?
Complex II
1149
What drug blocks the FO portion of the adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase) system of the electron transport chain (ETC)?
Oligomycin
1150
In what two places is glycogen made and stored?
1. Liver 2. Muscle: Liver stores are for blood glucose; muscle stores are for energy reserves.
1151
What drug blocks the ETC by attaching itself to K+ for passage through the membrane, negating the charge gradient?
Valinomycin
1152
At what step of the TCA cycle is FADH2 generated?
Succinate dehydrogenase (inhibited by malonate)
1153
What inhibits complex III of the ETC?
Antimycin A
1154
What inhibits the ATP/ADP translocase of the ETC?
Atractyloside
1155
Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) is associated with what three enzymes?
1. a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase 2. Pynivate dehydrogenase 3. Transketolase
1156
What hormone stimulates glycogen synthesis?
Insulin
1157
Deficiency in what enzyme leads to insoluble glycogen formation?
A-1,6 transferase
1158
The reduced nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH) generated from the G-6-PD reaction is used exclusively for what?
Fatty acid synthesis
1159
What enzyme requires selenium (Se) to function?
Glutathione peroxidase
1160
What are the two essential fatty acids?
1. Linoleic acid 2. Linolenic acid
1161
What intermediate of the HMP pathway is used to generate nucleotides?
Ribose-5-phosphate
1162
A deficiency in what enzyme causes a decrease in oxidoreductase activity in neutrophils?
G-6-PD
1163
What are the nonoxidative enzymes of the HMP shunt?
Transketolase and transaldolase
1164
Are the reactions they catalyze reversible or irreversible?
Reversible
1165
A patient who presents with cardiomegaly and hepatomegaly has what glycogen storage disease?
Pompe's disease (lysosomal glucosidase deficiency)
1166
Very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) remnants are known as what?
Intermediate-density lipoproteins (IDLs)
1167
What carries triacylglycerols (TAGS) and cholesterol from the diet?
Chylomicrons
1168
What protein is required for the uptake of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) in the peripheral tissue?
Apoprotein B-100
1169
What 3 apoproteins are on the surface of chylomicrons?
Apoprotein B-48, C-II, and E
1170
What protein carries free fatty acids to the liver?
Albumin
1171
What hormone is activated in adipose tissue when blood glucose levels decrease?
Hormone-sensitive lipase
1172
In the P-oxidation pathway, what enzyme generates the FADH2?
Acyl CoA dehydrogenase
1173
How many ATPs are generated per acetyl CoA in [3-oxidation?
5
1174
How many ATPs are generated per acetyl CoA from [3-oxidation if it is run through the TCA cycle?
12
1175
What is the only organ in the body that can produce ketone bodies?
The liver (in the mitochondria)
1176
What two tissues prefer ketone bodies over glucose?
1. Heart muscle 2. Renal cortex
1177
What enzyme is absent in the liver so that ketogenolysis cannot occur?
Thiophorase
1178
What pathway utilizes HMG-CoA synthetase in the cytoplasm?
Cholesterol biosynthesis
1179
What two vitamins are inactivated when they come in contact with acetaldehyde?
1. Thiamine 2. Folate
1180
What is the precursor of all sphingolipids?
Ceramide
1181
What two sugars can be used to produce cerebrosides?
1. Glucose 2. Galactose
1182
Where does the energy for the urea cycle come from?
Fat metabolism
1183
What are the two major carriers of nitrogen from tissues?
1. Glutamine (most tissues) 2. Alanine (muscle)
1184
What are the ketogenic amino acids?
Leucine and lysine
1185
What is the storage form of folate?
N-methyl folate
1186
What disease is produced by a deficiency in the enzyme tyrosinase?
Albinism (Tyrosine is converted to melanin by the enzyme tyrosinase.)
1187
What two enzymes are blocked by lead?
1. ALA dehydratase 2. Ferrochelatase
1188
Where in the body is heme converted to bilirubin?
Reticular endothelial system (RES)
1189
What type of bilirubin is found in neonatal jaundice?
Indirect or unconjugated
1190
What is the primary end product of pyrimidine synthesis?
Uridine monophosphate (UMP)
1191
All amino acids have titration plateaus at what pH values?
PH of 2 and 9
1192
What amino acid is a good buffer at a pH of 7?
Histidine
1193
What is the only way to increase maximum velocity (VmaY)?
Increase enzyme concentrations
1194
What happens to affinity if you increase K„?
Affinity decreases (they are inversely proportional)
1195
What two amino acids disrupt an a-helix?
1. Glycine 2. Proline
1196
What amino acid is a phenol?
Tyrosine
1197
What enzyme requires molybdenum (Mo) as a cofactor?
Xanthine oxidase
1198
What determines the rate of a reaction?
The energy of activation (Ea)
1199
What substrate concentration is required to produce 1/2 Vmax?
Km
1200
What enzyme is blocked by allopurinol?
Xanthine oxidase ("suicide inhibitor")
1201
What enzyme is stimulated by PTH to produce 1,25 vitamin D3?
1-a-Hydroxylase
1202
What three organs are used to produce vitamin D?
1. Skin 2. Liver 3. Kidney
1203
What vitamin is an important component of rhodopsin?
Vitamin A
1204
What G protein is stimulated by activated rhodopsin?
Gt (transducin), which decreases cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) and closes the Na+ channels, causing nerve transmission
1205
What are the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors?
2, 7, 9, and 10
1206
What vitamin is connected to selenium (Se) metabolism?
Vitamin E
1207
What is the activated form of vitamin E?
Alpha-tocopherol
1208
What elements make up a nucleoside?
A base and a sugar
1209
What is the most common methylated base?
Cytosine
1210
DNA is replicated at what phase of the cell cycle?
S phase
1211
At which end of DNA are new bases added?
3' end
1212
What keeps single-strand DNA (ssDNA) from re-annealing during DNA replication?
Single-strand (ss) binding protein
1213
What enzyme is responsible for producing a single-strand (ss) cut in the DNA to relieve the coil tension?
Topoisomerase I (relaxase)
1214
What two amino acids are found in high concentrations in the nucleosome?
1. Arginine 2. Lysine
1215
What three bases are pyrimidines?
1. Cytosine 2. Uracil (only in RNA) 3. Thymidine
1216
What enzyme creates a short sequence of RNA to start DNA replication?
Primase
1217
What type of enzyme is reverse transcriptase?
RNA-dependent DNA polymerise
1218
What is the direction of transcription?
5' to 3' direction
1219
Where is the TATA box in located eukaryotes?
25 bases downstream (-25)(promoter)
1220
What causes transcription to stop in eukaryotes?
The poly(A) site on the DNA
1221
What protein binds to the promoter region in eukaryotes to initiate transcription?
TF II D (transcription factor)
1222
What part of the 30S ribosome binds to the Shine-Dalgarno sequence?
16S subunit
1223
What is the start codon for translation?
AUG
1224
What is the enzyme that activates the amino acids for the tRNA?
Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
1225
What is needed to direct enzymes to a lysosome?
Phosphorylation of mannose residues
1226
What cofactor is needed for lysyl oxidase?
Cu2+
1227
What part of the 50S and 60S ribosomal subunit is needed for elongation?
Peptidyl transferase
1228
In the lac operon: At which site is the repressor gene encoded?
I gene
1229
To which site does the repressor protein bind in order to inhibit transcription?
Operator
1230
What amplification technique is used to generate a larger amount of DNA?
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
1231
What test is used to determine whether a gene is expressed?
Northern blotting
1232
At what organ in the body is urea produced?
Liver
1233
What regulatory proteins work during fetal development to ensure that cells become a specific cell type (If there is a defect here, there can be profound structural mutations.)?
Homeobox genes
1234
What is the mode of inheritance in which a trait is seen in every generation and is passed on only by females?
Mitochondrial inheritance
1235
What is the name for the process of going from mRNA to proteins?
Translation
1236
What are the components of a nucleotide?
A base, a sugar, and a phosphate
1237
What enzymes hydrolyze 3'-5' phosphodiesterase bonds from the outside of the strand in?
Exonucleases
1238
What type of organisms have monocistronic mRNA?
Eukaryotes
1239
In collagen, every third amino acid is this amino acid.
Glycine
1240
What form of continuous DNA, used in cloning, has no introns or regulatory elements?
c-DNA, when it is made from mRNA
1241
What proteins stimulate a cell to enter the S phase?
Growth factors
1242
At what pH is there no net charge on the structure?
pI (isoelectric point)
1243
What complex of the ETC contains Cue+?
Complex 4
1244
What two shuttles are needed to keep NAD+ in the reduced state?
Malate/aspartate and glycerol-3-phosphate shuttles
1245
What vitamin is required for y-carboxylation of many Cat+-binding proteins?
Vitamin K
1246
From where is the energy for gluconeogenesis derived?
ß-Oxidation of fatty acids
1247
What amino acid is broken down into N20, causing an increase in eGMP of smooth muscle resulting in vasodilatation?
Arginine
1248
What hormone phosphorylates enzymes to decrease their activity?
Glucagon
1249
Lack of what enzyme can lead to Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome through lack of activity in the HMP shunt?
Thiamine pyrophospate (TPP)
1250
What enzyme found in the liver catalyzes glycerol to glycerol-3-phosphate?
Glycerol kinase
1251
Which shuttle is used to bring fatty acyl CoA from the cytoplasm for ketogenesis?
Carnitine acyl CoA transferase II
1252
Which enzyme is deficient in phenylketonuria (PKU)?
Phenylalanine hydroxylase
1253
After approximately how many days of a prolonged fast does death occur in humans?
60 days
1254
What is the cause of death?
The breakdown of the essential proteins of the heart and brain
1255
All the carbons in a fatty acid are derived from what source?
Cytoplasmic acetyl CoA that left the mitochondria as citrate
1256
What enzyme is deficient in alcaptonuria?
Homogentisic acid
1257
In a diabetic patient, glucose is converted by aldose reductase to what?
Sorbitol (resulting in cataracts)
1258
What glycolytic intermediate can be used to synthesize triglycerides and phospholipids?
DHAP
1259
What glycolytic enzyme has a high Vmax high Km and low affinity for glucose?
Glucokinase
1260
What is the main inhibitor of pyrnvate dehydrogenase?
Acetyl CoA (pyruvate to acetyl CoA)
1261
What are the two substrate-level phosphorylations in glycolysis?
1. Pyruvate kinase 2. Phosphoglycerate kinase
1262
What are the eight liver-specific enzymes?
1. Fructokinase 2. Glucokinase 3. Glycerol kinase 4. PEPCK 5. Pyruvate carboxylase 6. Galactokinase 7. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate 8. Glucose-6-phosphate
1263
In what cycle does glucose go to the muscle, where it is converted to pyruvate and then into alanine before being taken back to the liver?
Alanine cycle
1264
In what cycle does glucose go to the muscle, where it is converted to lactate, and then returned to the liver?
Cori cycle
1265
What four substances increase the rate of gluconeogenesis?
1. Glucagon 2. NADH 3. Acetyl CoA 4. ATP
1266
What enzyme is deficient in a patient who presents with: Liver damage and severe hypoglycemia?
Aldolase B (hereditary fructose intolerance)
1267
Jaundice, vomiting, lethargy, cat, galactosemia, and galactosuria?
Galactose 1-phosphate uridyltransferase
1268
What three substances stimulate glycogenolysis?
1. Cat+:calmodulin ratio 2. Epinephrine 3. Glucagon
1269
What are the two inhibitors of complex I of the ETC?
1. Rotenone 2. Amytai (barbiturates)
1270
What are the five factors that constitute the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?
1. TPP 2. Lipoic acid 3. CoASH 4. FAD 5. NAD
1271
What attaches to protons and allows them to enter into the mitochondria without going through the ATP-generating system?
24-Dinitrophenol
1272
What are the two decarboxylation steps of the TCA cycle?
1. Isocitrate dehydrogenase 2. a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
1273
What are the three inhibitors of complex IV of the ETC?
1. Cyanide 2. CO 3. Azide
1274
What three steps of the TCA cycle generate NADH?
1. Malate dehydrogenase 2. Isocitrate dehydrogenase 3. a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
1275
What disease presents with weakness and cramps on exercise without an increase in blood lactate levels?
McArdle's disease (muscle glycogen phosphorylase deficiency)
1276
NADPH generated from the HMP shunt is used for what?
Fatty acid synthesis, nucleotide synthesis, and glutathione reductase
1277
Is linolenic acid an omega-3 or -6 fatty acid?
Omega-3; linoleic is omega-6
1278
Is the oxidative reaction of the HMP shunt reversible or irreversible?
Irreversible (G-6-PD and 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase)
1279
What disease presents with an enlarged liver and kidneys, dwarfism, hypoglycemia, acidosis, and hyperlipidemia?
Von Gierke's disease (glucose 6-phosphatase deficiency)
1280
At what three sites can the HMP shunt enter into glycolysis?
1. Fructose-6-phosphate 2. Glucose-6-phosphate 3. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate 1
1281
Deficiency in the liver glycogen phosphorylase enzyme is known as what?
Hers disease
1282
What causes the lysis of red blood cells by oxidizing agents in a glucose-6- phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency?
The lack of glutathione peroxidase activity results in a decrease in NADPH production, leaving glutathione in the reduced state.
1283
What disease presents with hepatomegaly and a normal EKG?
Glycogen storage disease, type III (Forbes disease, Cori disease)
1284
What apoprotein is on the surface of LDL?
Apoprotein B-100
1285
What carries cholesterol from the tissues back to the liver?
HDLs
1286
What apoprotein mediates the uptake of remnants by the liver?
Apoprotein E
1287
What is the complex needed for acetyl CoA carboxylase?
Biotin, ATP, and G02 (acetyl CoA to malonyl CoA)
1288
What are the three tissues where TAGS are produced?
1. Liver 2. Muscle 3. Adipose tissue
1289
What delivers cholesterol to the tissues?
LDLs
1290
What apoprotein is produced by the intestinal epithelium?
Apoprotein B-48
1291
What carries TAGS to the peripheral tissues?
VLDLs
1292
How many NADPHs are used per addition of each of acetyl CoA into a fatty acid chain?
2 NADPHs/acetyl CoA
1293
What apoprotein activates lipoprotein lipase in the capillary epithelium to hydrolyze TAGS?
Apoprotein C-II
1294
What apoproteins are on the surface of IDL?
Apoproteins B-100 and E
1295
From which two substances are phospholipids made?
1. DAGs 2. Phosphatidic acid
1296
What apoproteins are on the surface of HDL?
Apoprotein A-I, C-II, and E
1297
What is needed to produce a double bond in a fatty acid chain in the endoplasmic reticulum?
NADPH, O2, and cytochrome b5
1298
What apoprotein activates lecithin cholesterol acyl transferase to esterify cholesterol from tissue?
Apoprotein A-I
1299
What apoproteins are on the surface of VLDL?
Apoproteins B-100, C-II, and E
1300
At the end of each round of ß-oxidation, what is released?
Acetyl CoA, FADH, and NADH
1301
What two enzymes are vitamin B12 dependent?
1. Homocysteine methyl transferase 2. Methylmalonyl CoA transferase
1302
What enzyme is blocked by disulfiram?
Aldehyde dehydrogenase
1303
What hormone hydrolyzes TAGS to free fatty acids and glycerol?
Hormone-sensitive lipase
1304
What enzyme is deficient in a patient 2 years of age or younger who presents with vomiting, lethargy, coma, hypoketosis, and hypoglycemia following a fast of more than 12 hours?
Medium-chain acyl dehydrogenase
1305
What form of alcohol did the patient drink if he became blind as a result?
Methanol (wood alcohol)
1306
What regulates the rate of ketone body formation?
The rate of ß-oxidation
1307
What intermediate enables propionyl CoA to enter into the TCA cycle?
Succinyl CoA
1308
What sphingolipid is formed by the union of serine and palmitoyl CoA?
Sphingosine
1309
What intermediate of cholesterol synthesis anchors proteins in the membranes and forms CoQ?
Farnesyl pyrophosphate (FPP)
1310
What is the complex needed for propionyl CoA carboxylase?
Biotin, ATP, and C02
1311
What are the three ketone bodies?
1. Acetoacetate 2. Acetone 3. ß-hydroxybutyrate
1312
What type of damage to the kidneys is caused by drinking ethylene glycol (antifreeze)?
Nephrotoxic oxylate stones
1313
What is the only sphingolipid that contains choline and p04?
Sphingomyelin (lecithin also, but it is not a sphingolipid)
1314
What is the order of fuel utilization in a prolonged fast?
1. Glucose from liver glycogen 2. Glucose from gluconeogenesis 3. Body protein 4. Body fat
1315
Sialic acid and amino sugars are needed to produce what sphingolipid?
Ganglioside
1316
What vitamin is needed as a cofactor for decarboxylation and transaminase reactions?
Vitamin B6
1317
What are the two ways that nitrogen can enter into the urea cycle?
1. Aspartate 2. Carbomoyl PO4
1318
What is the only enzyme in the body that uses N5 methyl folate?
Homocysteine methyl transferase
1319
What enzyme deficiency will result in an increase in blood ammonia and an increase in uracil and orotate concentrations in both the blood and urine?
Ornithine transcarbamoylase (OTC) deficiency-also called ornithine carbamoyltransverase (OCT) deficiency
1320
What amino acid is a precursor of the following substances: Serotonin?
Tryptophan
1321
What amino acid is a precursor of the following substances: GABA?
Glutamate
1322
What amino acid is a precursor of the following substances: Histamine?
Histidine
1323
What amino acid is a precursor of the following substances: Creatine?
Glycine/arginine
1324
What amino acid is a precursor of the following substances: NAD?
Tryptophan
1325
What amino acid is a precursor of the following substances: N20?
Arginine
1326
What enzyme deficiency will result in an increase in blood ammonia, but no increase in uracil concentrations?
Carbamoyl-phosphate synthetase
1327
What are the glucogenic and ketogenic amino acids?
Phenylalanine, Tyrosine, Tryptophan, Isoleucine, Threonine
1328
What are the three diseases of sphingolipids?
1. Niemann-Pick disease 2. Gaucher's disease 3. Tay-Sachs disease
1329
What type of jaundice is seen in Rotor's syndrome?
Conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinemia
1330
What is the pyrimidine intermediate that joins PRPP?
Orotic acid
1331
What three amino acids are used to synthesize the purine ring?
1. Glycine 2. Aspartate 3. Glutamine
1332
What enzyme is blocked by hydroxyurea?
Ribonucleotide reductase
1333
What is the primary end product of purine synthesis?
IMP
1334
What enzyme is deficient in hereditary protoporphyria?
Ferrochelatase
1335
What are the two precursors of heme?
1. Glycine 2. Succinyl-CoA
1336
What enzyme is blocked by 5-FU?
Thymidylate synthetase
1337
What disease has a genetically low level of UDPglucuronate transferase, resulting in elevated free unconjugated bilirubin?
Gilbert's syndrome
1338
What form of bilirubin can cross the blood-brain barrier?
Unconjugated free bilirubin
1339
What substrates are needed to produce carbamoyl P04 (de novo pyrimidine synthesis)?
Glutamine, CO2, and ATP via carbamoyl PO4 synthetase II
1340
What enzyme is blocked by methotrexate/trimethoprim?
Dihydrofolate reductase
1341
What type of jaundice is seen in Dubin-Johnson syndrome?
Conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinemia (It is a transport defect.)
1342
What form of bilirubin is carried on albumin?
Unconjugated (indirect)
1343
In what disease is there a genetic absence of UDPglucuronate transferase, resulting in an increase in free unconjugated bilirubin?
Crigler-Najjar syndrome
1344
What enzyme is deficient in acute intermittent porphyria?
Uroporphyrinogen I synthetase
1345
What enzyme is deficient in congenital erythropoietic porphyria?
Uroporphyrinogen III cosynthase
1346
What amino acid has a pKa of 13?
Arginine
1347
What two amino acids have a pKa of 10?
1. Lysine 2. Tyrosine
1348
What two amino acids have a pKa of 4?
1. Aspartic acid 2. Glutamic acid
1349
What disease has a genetic deficiency in adenosine deaminase?
Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
1350
What type of charge does the molecule have if the pH is greater than the pI (isoelectric point)?
A net negative charge
1351
In what disease is there a deficiency in hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRT)?
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
1352
What is the end product of purine catabolism?
Uric acid
1353
What enzyme is deficient in selective T cell immunodeficiency?
Purine nucleoside phosphorylase
1354
What substrate builds up in Tay-Sachs disease?
Ganglioside GM2
1355
On a Lineweaver-Burke plot, what type of binding has both plots crossing the y-axis in the same spot?
Competitive, reversible inhibition (Vmax is the same, increase Km)
1356
What toxin ADP-ribosylates via GS protein to increase CAMP?
Cholera toxin
1357
What vitamin derivatives are used for growth and differentiation of epithelium for reproductive and embryonic development?
Vitamin A
1358
Light causes isomerization of what in the eyes?
11-cis-retinal to traps-retinal (activated rhodopsin)
1359
What are the two actions of calcitonin?
1. Increases Ca2+ excretion from the kidney 2. Increases bone mineralization
1360
What causes an increase in bone mineralization and Cat+, as well as P04 absorption from the GI tract and kidney tubules?
Vitamin D
1361
On the Lineweaver-Burke plot, what type of binding has both plots crossing the x-axis in the same spot?
Noncompetitive, reversible binding (decrease in Vmax; Km is same)
1362
What is the maximum rate possible with a given amount of enzyme?
Vmax
1363
To what are intracellular glucose levels inversely related?
cAMP levels
1364
Does a saturated fatty acid have double bonds?
No; unsaturated fatty acids have double bonds
1365
What two factors cause PTH to be secreted?
1. A decrease in blood Ca2+ 2. A decrease in PO4 concentrations
1366
What in the human genome differs in each individual that can serve as an identification marker?
RFLP-restriction fragment length polymorphism
1367
What test is used to identify HIV-positive patients?
ELISA-enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
1368
What toxin ADP-ribosylates via G to increase cAMP?
Pertussis toxin
1369
What vitamin is essential for normal Ca2+ and P04 metabolism?
Vitamin D
1370
What vitamin is deficient in a person who has impaired taste, night blindness, and increased risk for having an abortion?
Vitamin A
1371
What bond does an endonuclease cleave?
3', 5' internal phosphodiesterase bond
1372
What protein separates base pairs and unwinds the DNA at the replication fork?
Helicase (It is an ATP-dependent enzyme.)
1373
What vitamin deficiency would cause liver necrosis and red blood cell fragility?
Vitamin E deficiency
1374
What protein catalyzes the formation of the last phosphodiester bond (PDE) between the Okazaki fragments to produce a continuous strand?
DNA ligase
1375
What is the hypochromic effect?
Increased absorption as DNA goes from double stranded to single stranded
1376
What technique uses DNA for analysis?
Southern blotting
1377
In what direction is a new DNA strand made?
5' to 3'
1378
What enzyme has a 5' to 3' synthesis activity and a 3' exonuclease activity?
DNA polymerase III
1379
What enzyme makes a double-stranded cut through DNA, needs ATP, and introduces negative supercoiling?
Topoisomerase II
1380
What eukaryotic DNA polymerase is used for: DNA replication?
a- and delta-polymerase
1381
What eukaryotic DNA polymerase is used for: Replication in mitochondria?
gamma-Polymerase
1382
What eukaryotic DNA polymerase is used for: DNA repair?
ß-Polymerase
1383
What is the orientation of the gene sequence strand?
5' to 3' (same as RNA)
1384
What is the location of the TATA box in procaryotes?
10 bases downstream
1385
What binds to the promoter region in procaryotes?
Sigma factor
1386
What enzyme has a 5' to 3' synthesis of the Okazaki fragments, 3' exonuclease activity, and 5' exonuclease activity?
DNA polymerase I
1387
What type of mutation has the same amino acid coded for, but with a different codonsequence?
Silent mutation
1388
At what position of the anticodon does the "wobble" hypothesis occur?
Position 1 of the anticodon (the 5' end)- which is the same as position 3 of the codon (the 3' end)
1389
What are the three "stop" codons?
1. UAA 2. UAG 3. UGA
1390
What stops transcription in procaryotes?
Rho factor or a hairpin loop
1391
What are the three post-transcriptional modifications?
1. 7-methyl guanine cap on the 5' end 2. Addition of the poly(A) tail to the 3' end 3. Removal of introns
1392
In what type of mutation is a different codon added, resulting in formation of a different amino acid?
Missense mutation
1393
What amino acid is attached to the 3' end of the tRNA in eukaryotes?
Methionine
1394
What enzyme makes tRNA and the SsRNA?
RNA polymerase III
1395
What structure of a protein describes the interaction among subunits?
Quaternary structure
1396
What two amino acids require vitamin C for hydroxylation?
1. Proline 2. Lysine
1397
What is determined by the secondary structure of an amino acid?
The folding of an amino acid chain
1398
Which mutation has a stop codon put in place of the previous codon?
Nonsense mutation
1399
What amino acid is attached to the 3' end of the tRNA in prokaryotes?
f-Methionine
1400
What enzyme makes rRNA (barring the 5s subunit)?
RNA polymerase I
1401
What is the site of action of cycloheximide?
Peptidyl transferase (60S)
1402
What translation factor is blocked by erythromycin?
Elongation factore G (EF-G)
1403
What is the charge of the molecule if the pH is less than the pI (isoelectric point)?
A net positive charge
1404
What technique uses the separation of proteins on a gel electrophoresis?
Western blot
1405
Lack of what vitamin causes multiple carboxylase deficiency?
Biotin
1406
What enzyme makes hnRNA/mRNA?
RNA polymerase II
1407
What enzyme is deficient in cystathioninuria?
Cystathionase
1408
What enzyme is deficient in maple syrup urine disease?
Branched-chain keto acid dehydrogenase
1409
What type of mutation has the addition or deletion of a base?
Frameshift
1410
What is the site of action of puromycin?
Aminoacyl tRNA (A site)
1411
What translational factor is blocked by both diphtheria and Pseudomonas toxins?
Elongation factor 2 (EF-2)
1412
What substrate gets built up in Gaucher's disease?
Glucosyl cerebroside
1413
What enzyme is deficient in homocystinuria?
Homocysteine methyl transferase or cystathionine synthetase
1414
What substrate is built up in Niemann-Pick disease?
Tyrosine kinase
1415
What is the second messenger system used by growth factors?
Sphingomyelin
1416
What is the name of the sequence on mRNA that precedes the start codon in prokaryotes?
Shine-Dalgarno sequence
1417
What amino acid undergoes N-glycosylation?
Asparagine
1418
What translational factor is blocked by tetracycline?
Elongation factor Tu (EF-Tu)
1419
What translational factor is blocked by streptomycin?
IF-2
1420
Which organisms have polycistronic mRNA?
Prokaryotes: Polycistonic and prokaryotes both start with P.
1421
In what disease are lysosomal enzymes released into the extracellular space where an accumulation of inclusion bodies compromises the cell's function?
I-cell disease
1422
What is the site of action of chloramphenicol?
Peptidyl transferase (50s)
1423
What is needed to initiate translation?
IF and GTP (OF for eukaryotes)
1424
What is the name of the process of going from DNA to mRNA?
Transcription
1425
Is the hydroxyl (-OH) end of DNA and RNA at the 3' or the 5' end?
3' end. Phosphate (P04) is at the 5' end.
1426
What is the only factor of enzyme kinetics that the enzyme affects?
Ea (activation energy)
1427
What tumor suppressor gene prevents a cell from entering S phase when no growth factors are present?
Rb gene
1428
What tumor suppressor gene prevents a cell with damaged DNA from entering the S phase?
p53 gene
1429
What factors are needed for elongation in prokaryotes?
EF-Tu or EF-is and GTP
1430
What factors are needed for translocation in eukaryotes?
EF-2 and GTP
1431
What type of inheritance involves carriers, affects only males, and skips generations?
X-linked recessive
1432
What type of separation technique uses RNA on an electrophoresis?
Northern blotting
1433
What factors are needed for elongation in eukaryotes?
EF-1 and GTP
1434
What factors are needed for translation in prokaryotes?
EF-G and GTP
1435
What type of inheritance has no male-to-male transmission, and every daughter is affected from the father in every generation?
X-linked recessive
1436
What virus is associated with intranuclear inclusions known as "owl's eye" inclusions?
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
1437
What virus is associated with Negri bodies?
Rabies virus
1438
What virus is associated with Guarnieri bodies?
Variola virus -7-ox vtrcs
1439
What virus causes small, pink, benign wart-like tumors and is associated with HIV-positive patients?
Molluscum contagiosum
1440
What viruses are associated with cervical carcinoma?
Human papilloma viruses (HPVs) 16 and 18
1441
What virus is associated with erythema infectiosum or fifth disease?
Parvovirus B-19
1442
What virus binds to: CD4?
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
1443
What virus binds to: ß2-Microglobulin?
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
1444
What virus binds to: Complement factor C3?
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) - Qp7_1
1445
What virus binds to: ACh receptors?
Rabies virus
1446
What is the only dsRNA virus?
Reovirus
1447
What are the three non-enveloped RNA viruses?
1. Picornavirns 2. Calicivirns 3. Reovirns (PCR)
1448
What viruses are associated with Cowdry type A intranuclear inclusions?
Herpes virus I and II
1449
What virus is associated with the Norwalk agent?
Calicivirns
1450
What virus affects the motor neurons in the anterior horn?
Poliovirus
1451
What is the most common cause of diarrhea in children?
Adenovirns /Ro.S.mftg
1452
What virus lies dormant in the: Trigeminal ganglia?
Herpes I
1453
What virus lies dormant in the: Dorsal root ganglia?
Varicella
1454
What virus lies dormant in the: Sensory ganglia of S2 and S3?
Herpes II
1455
With what virus are Downey type II cells associated?
EBV
1456
What are the four segmented RNA viruses?
1. Bunyavirns 2. Orthomyxovirus 3. Reovirns 4. Arenavirus (BORA)
1457
Koilocytic cells on a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear are indicative of what virus?
HPV
1458
What bacteria constitute the most common cause of nosocomial infections in burn patients and in patients with cystic fibrosis?
Pseudomonas
1459
What organism is associated with pneumonia acquired from air conditioners?
Legionella
1460
What species of bacteria is associated with whooping cough?
Bordetella pertus,sis
1461
What two bacteria are associated with drinking unpasteurized milk?
1. Brucella 2. Listeria (has tumbling motility)
1462
What organism is associated with gastritis and ulcers?
Helicobacter pylori
1463
What species of bacteria is associated with traveler's diarrhea?
Escherichia coli (enterotoxic)
1464
With what organism is "currant jelly" sputum associated?
Klebsiella pneumoniae
1465
What is the most common cause of enterocolitis?
Salmonella enteritidis
1466
What organism is so infective that it takes only 1 to 10 organisms to cause an infection?
Shigella
1467
What organism stains bipolar and causes buboes?
Yersinia pesos
1468
Rice water stools are indicative of what organism?
Vibrio cholerae
1469
With what organism are intracellular gram-negative inclusions in neutrophils associated?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
1470
What organism is most likely to cause an infection if you are bitten by a dog or a cat?
Pasteurella
1471
What organism needs factor X and NAD in order to grow on growth medium?
Haemophilu.s influenzae type B
1472
What organism is associated with a rigid belly and rose spots on the belly?
Salnwnella typhi
1473
What organism will cause an infection if undercooked or raw seafood is eaten?
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
1474
What organism is likely to infect you if you get cut by a shell at the beach?
Vibrio vulnificus
1475
What infective bacteria are found in undercooked hamburgers?
Escherichia coli strain 0157:H7ss
1476
What organism is said to have a "spaghetti and meatball" arrangement under a microscope?
Malassezia furfur
1477
What fungus is associated with rose gardener's disease?
Sporothrix schenckii
1478
What fungus is seen as colored cauliflower lesions?
Chromomycosis
1479
What fungus is found in soil with bird or bat feces?
Histoplasma cap.sulatum
1480
Which organism causes San Joaquin fever?
Coccidioides immitis
1481
What fungus causes endocarditis in IV drug users?
Candida albicans
1482
What fungus is found in pigeon droppings?
Cryptococcus neoformans
1483
What fungus is seen as a yeast with broad-based buds and a double refractile cell wall?
Blastomyces dermatitidis
1484
What fungus is stained positive with India ink?
Cryptococcus neoforrnans
1485
What virus is the most common causative agent of the common cold in the summer and the fall?
Rhiuovirus
1486
To what family of viruses do dengue, St. Louis, and yellow fever belong?
Flavivirus
1487
What is the name of the bullet-shaped virus?
Rhabdovirus
1488
What virus is responsible for causing the croup and also the common cold in the young and the old?
Paraiuflueuza virus
1489
What is the causative agent of orchitis, parotids, and pancreatitis?
Mumps virus
1490
What virus causes hoof-and-mouth disease?
Vesicular stomatitis virus
1491
What is the most common cause of pneumonia in children 1 year old or younger?
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
1492
What virus is the most common cause of the common cold in the winter and early spring?
Coronavinzs
1493
What yeast is urease positive?
Cryptococcus neoformans
1494
What fungus is a facultative intracellular parasite of the reticular endothelial system?
Histoplasma capsulatum
1495
What virus is helical and has HN and F glycoprotein spikes?
Paramyxovirus
1496
What is the most common cause of pneumonia in persons with underlying health problems?
Klebsiella pneumoniae
1497
What is the most common cause of pneumonia in young children?
Mycoplasma
1498
What virus causes epidemic keratoconjunetivitis?
Adenovirus
1499
What is the most common cold virus?
Rhinovirus
1500
What two viruses have neuraminidase activity?
1. Influenza 2. Mumps
1501
What is the most common cause of diarrhea in infants?
Rotavirus
1502
What is the reservoir for the togavirus?
Birds
1503
What two viruses cause pancreatitis?
1. Mumps 2. Coxsackie B40
1504
With what two viruses are Reye's syndrome associated?
1. Varicella virus 2. Influenza virus
1505
What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Children younger than 3 months of age?
Streptococcus agalactiae or Escherichia Coli
1506
What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Non-immunized children 12 months to 6 years old?
Haemophilus influenzae type b
1507
What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Immunized children 12 months to 6 years old?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
1508
What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Military recruits?
Neisseria meningitidis
1509
What is the most common cause of meningitis in: HIV+/immunocompromised persons?
Cryptococcus neoformans
1510
What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Adults?
Streptococcus pneunwniae
1511
What is the most common cause of bronchiolitis in children?
RSV
1512
What is the most common cause of urinary tract infections?
Escherichia coli
1513
Which three organisms cause heterophilic negative mononucleosis?
1. CMV 2. Toxoplasma gondii 3. Listeria
1514
What two genera are spore formers?
1. Clostridia 2. Bacillus
1515
What bacteria are responsi- ble for woolsorters' disease?
Bacillus anthracis
1516
What is the most common cause of bacterial pneumonia?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
1517
What bacteria cause subacute endocarditis and dental caries?
Streptococcus viridans
1518
Which two organisms can cause sulfur granules in the pus?
1. Actinomyces 2. Nocardia
1519
What species of bacteria is responsible for causing endocarditis in IV drug users?
Staphylococcus epidermidis
1520
What bacteria are responsible for food poisoning from rice, fried rice, and reheated foods?
Bacillus cereus
1521
Which bacteria present as a common cause of meningitis in renal transplant patients?
Listeria
1522
What bacteria get inoculated into the body by a puncture wound in the skin and also inhibit glycine and GABA?
Clostridium tetani
1523
What bacteria are found in poorly preserved canned food and cause flaccid paralysis?
Clostridium botulinum
1524
What bacteria cause myonecrosis?
Clostridium perfringens
1525
What bacteria cause pseudomembranous colitis?
Clostridium difficile
1526
What bacteria are associated with food poisoning from ham, potato salad, and custards?
Staphylococcus aureus
1527
What three bacteria are quellung reactive test positive?
1. Neisseria meningitidis 2. Haemophilus influenzae 3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
1528
Which organism causes a painful chancre?
Haemophilus ducreyi
1529
What is the most common cause of viral pneumonia?
RSV
1530
What is the predominant anaerobe in the colon?
Bacillus fragilis
1531
Which organism causes trench mouth?
Fusobacterium
1532
Which organism causes Lyme disease?
Borrelia burgdorferi
1533
Which organism causes Weil's disease?
Leptospira
1534
What organism causes Q fever?
Coxiella burnetii
1535
Which agent causes pneumonia in college students and military recruits?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
1536
What is the tetrad of Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?
Rigors, leukopenia, decrease in blood pressure, and increase in temperature
1537
Which spirochete causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
Rickettsia rickettsii (wrist to trunk rash)
1538
Which organism causes trench fever?
Rochalimaea quintana
1539
Which organism causes epidemic typhus?
Rickettsia prowazekii (trunk to periphery rash)
1540
Which organism causes pneumonia in bird owners?
Chlamydia psittaci
1541
Which organism causes multiple infections by antigen switching?
Borrelia recurrentis
1542
Which organism has protein A for an anti-opsonization defense?
Staphylococcus aureus
1543
Which organism releases endotoxins PRIOR to cell death?
Neisseria meningitidis
1544
What is the only ssDNA virus?
Parvovirus
1545
What is the only DNA virus to replicate in the cytoplasm?
Poxvirus
1546
What are the three naked DNA viruses?
1. Parvovirus 2. Adenovirus 3. Papovavirus (PAP)
1547
What is the only DNA virus that has the reverse transcriptase enzyme?
Hepadnavirus
1548
Which hepatitis virus is an RNA viroid-like virus that needs hepatitis B to be infective?
Hepatitis D
1549
Which hepatitis virus is an enveloped RNA flavivirus, which is known for postinfusional hepatitis?
Hepatitis C
1550
What antigen is needed to diagnose an infectious patient with hepatitis B?
Hepatitis Be antigen
1551
Which type of hepatitis can cause hepatocellular carcinoma?
Hepatitis B 4- C
1552
Which type of hepatitis is a calicivirus?
Hepatitis E (enteric)
1553
Which type of hepatitis is a picornavirus?
Hepatitis A (infectious)
1554
What two antigens need to be positive for a patient to have chronic active hepatitis?
1. Hepatitis Bs 2. Hepatitis A antigen
1555
In the window phase of a hepatitis B infection, which antibodies do you see?
Hepatitis Be and c antibodies; You see the antibodies c and e.
1556
Which virus is found in the urine of rodents?
Arenavirus
1557
Which virus is associated with hairy T cell leukemia?
HTLV-I and HTLV-II
1558
What are the components of the rubella triad?
1. Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) 2. Cataracts 3. Mental retardation
1559
What is the drug of choice to treat: HSV encephalitis?
Vidarabine
1560
What is the drug of choice to treat: RSV pneumonia?
Ribavirin
1561
What is the drug of choice to treat: CMV retinitis/infection?
Ganciclovir
1562
What is the drug of choice to treat: Influenza A?
Amantadine
1563
What is the drug of choice to treat: HSV?
Acyclovir
1564
What is the drug of choice to treat: HPV?
Interferon alpha
1565
What does Candida albicana do that distinguishes it from other fungi?
It forms a germinal tube at 37°C.
1566
Which organism, transmitted by sexual contact, is almost diagnostic by the foul-smelling, green discharge from the vagina and its associated itch?
Trichomonas vaginalis
1567
Which organism is associated with a diffuse bilateral interstitial pneumonia and with HIV-positive patients with CD4 counts of 200 or lower?
Pneumocysti.s carinii
1568
What three organs can be affected by Trypanoaoma cruzi?
1. Heart 2. Esophagus 3. Colon Remember-you get "megas:" 1. Cardiomegaly 2. Megaesophagus 3. Megacolon
1569
What organism causes kala-azar, which is associated with hyperpigmentation of the skin, enlargement of the spleen, and decreased bone marrow activity?
Leishmania donovani
1570
Which type of malaria is associated with dark urine?
Plasmodium falciparum (malignant)
1571
What people are "protected" from malaria?
People with heterogenous sickle cell trait
1572
What type of Plasmodium is banana or crescent shaped when stained with Giemsa stain?
Plasmodium falciparum
1573
What is the only Plasmodium that is quartan?
Plasmodium malarize; the others are tertian.
1574
What types of Plasmodium produce latent hypnozoites in the liver, which can cause a relapse?
Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale
1575
What organism is associated with liver abscess, t ulcers, and perforated diaphragms?
Entamoeba histolytica
1576
What type of Plasmodium affects: Only mature RBCs?
Plasmodium malariae
1577
What type of Plasmodium affects: Only redculocytes?
Plasmodium vivax
1578
What type of Plasmodium affects: RBCs of all ages?
Plasmodium falciparum
1579
What three carcinomas are associated with EBV?
1. Burkitt's lymphoma 2. Nasopharvngeal 3. Thymic
1580
What is the direction of the strand if a virus has infectious +RNA?
5' to 3' RNA
1581
What two viruses do not get their envelope from budding but actually from coding?
HIV and poxvirus
1582
What glycoprotein in the HIV virus is used for fusion?
GP41
1583
What glycoprotein in the HIV virus attaches to CD4?
GP120
1584
What protein of the HIV virus is used to detect if a patient is HIV-positive by ELISA?
P24
1585
What two viruses cause progressive multifocal encephalitis?
1. Simian (SV40) virus 2. JC virus
1586
With what virus do you see Koplik's spots and Worthin- Finkeldy cells, and possibly subacute sclerosing panencephalitis?
Rubeola (measles)
1587
What are known as jumping genes?
Transposons
1588
What is the most common viral cause of myocarditis?
Coxsackie B
1589
What virus is associated with heterophil-positive mononucleosis?
EBV
1590
What is the only virus to be eradicated?
Smallpox virus
1591
What virus, which creates painful vesicular lesions, is a cause of aseptic meningitis?
Herpes simplex II
1592
What virus attaches to fibroblastic growth factor?
Herpes simplex I
1593
What is the most prevalent coral infection in the USA?
Varicella-zoster virus
1594
What is the only herpes virus to cross the placenta?
CMV
1595
Of what virus are Guarnieri bodies diagnostic?
Smallpox
1596
What cells are atypical on a peripheral blood smear in a heterophil-positive mononucleosis?
T cells not the B cells
1597
What type of hepatitis has the highest mortality rate among pregnant women?
Hepatitis E
1598
What does hepatitis D virus need from hepatitis B virus to be infective?
Hepatitis Bs antigen as its envelope
1599
What are the two hepatitis viruses that can be chronic and can lead eventually to hepatocellular carcinoma?
1. Hepatitis B 2. Hepatitis C
1600
What are the only two viruses where naked dsDNA is NOT infectious?
1. Poxvirus 2. Hepatitis B virus
1601
What is the only diploid virus?
Retrovirus
1602
What types) of immune response is the body capable of making when presented with a live vaccine?
Humoral and cell mediated
1603
What IIPV is the causative agent of anogenital warts?
HPV 6 and 11
1604
What types) of immune response is the body capable of making when presented with a killed vaccine?
Humoral only
1605
Who are the "typical" women who present with endometrial carcinoma?
Older, non-sexually active women (whereas young, sexually active women present with cervical carcinoma)
1606
What type of vaccine is the MMR vaccine?
Live, attenuated vaccine
1607
With what virus is postauricular lymphadenopathy associated?
Measles (rubella) virus
1608
In what trimester is the fetus most vulnerable to congenital rubella syndrome?
The first trimester
1609
What is the order of the antibodies, from first to last, in an infected patient with hepatitis?
Hepatitis Be, e, s
1610
What is the first antigen seen in an individual with hepatitis?
Hepatitis Bs antigen (incubation period)
1611
What antibody is an indication of low transmissibility for hepatitis?
Hepatitis Be antibody
1612
What antibody is an indication of recurrent disease for hepatitis?
Hepatitis Be antibody
1613
Antibodies to what hepatitis B antigen provide immunity?
Antibodies to hepatitis Bs antigen
1614
What are the three C's of measles?
1. Cough 2. Coryza 3. Conjunctivitis
1615
What vector is associated with malaria?
Anopheles mosquito
1616
What is the vector for yellow fever?
Aedes mosquito
1617
What are the only two picornaviruses that do NOT lead to aseptic meningitis?
1. Rhinovirus 2. Hepatitis A virus
1618
Are antibiotics helpful in treating a disease caused by a prion?
No. Prions are infectious proteins; thus, antibiotics are useless.
1619
What is the only part of the virus that is "detectable" during the eclipse period of the viral growth cycle?
The viral nucleic acid .
1620
What is the only virus to carry its own ribosomes?
Arenavirus
1621
What is the term for the period from the onset of an infection to the appearance of the virus extracellularly?
Latent period
1622
What is the leading cause of diarrhea in the USA?
Campylobacter jejuni
1623
What organism would cause a patient to present with constant diarrhea after drinking mountain stream water on a camping trip?
Giardia lamblia
1624
What parasite can cause vitamin B12 deficiencies?
Diphyllobothrium latum
1625
What viral infection is associated with black vomit?
Yellow Fever (flavivirus)
1626
What are the two nonspecific chemical defenses of the body?
Acidic pH and lysozymes
1627
What are the two nonspecific physical defenses of the body?
Skin and mucus
1628
What immunoglobulin is the first antibody in an immune response?
IgM
1629
What is the major antibody of external secretions?
IgA
1630
What is the major antibody of internal secretions (blood, CSF, lymph)?
IgG
1631
What is the valence of an immunoglobulin molecule equal to?
The number of antigens that the antibody can bind
1632
What immunoglobulin is a marker for mature B cells and is the antigen receptor for B cells?
IgD
1633
What is the only IgG that cannot bind to Staphylococcus protein A?
IgG3
1634
By which process do antibodies make microorganisms more easily ingested via phagocytosis?
Opsonization
1635
Which immunoglobulin is found as a pentamer and activates complement?
IgM
1636
What is synthesized by epithelial cells, protects IgA from degradation, and transports IgA across epithelial barriers?
Secretory component of IgA
1637
Which IgG cannot activate complement?
IgG4
1638
What cell surface marker is used to distinguish different stages in the maturation of T cells?
CD3
1639
What form of graft involves tissue or organ transplantation between genetically identical twins?
Isograft (isogenic graft, syngraft)
1640
True or false: antigen. antibody binding is irreversible?
False; it is reversible because the antigens and antibodies are not linked covalently.
1641
What is the term for a single isolated antigenic determinant?
Hapten (not immunogenic)
1642
Which chromosome is associated with major histocompatibility complex (MHC) genes?
Chromosome 6
1643
Which region of the variable domain comprises the antigen-binding site of the antibody?
Hypervariable region (three per light chain; three per heavy chain)
1644
What form of transplantation crosses the species barrier?
Xenograft
1645
What subdivision of MHC is found on all nucleated cells?
MHC class I (three subtypes: -A,-B,-C)
1646
What protein is used to differentiate MHC class I from MHC class II, and on what chromosome is it found?
ß2-Microglobulin, on chromosome 15
1647
What cell type recognizes MHC class I?
Cytotoxic T cell (CD8)
1648
What is the predominant antibody of a secondary immune response in the mucosal route?
IgA
1649
What substance is secreted by activated helper T cells to induce T and B cell division?
IL-2
1650
What type of antigen do B cells recognize?
Free, unprocessed antigen
1651
What type of antigen do T cells recognize?
Processed antigenic peptides bound in the groove of the MHC molecule
1652
Which protein prevents internal binding of self proteins within an MHC class II cell?
Invariant chain
1653
In a binding of helper T cells and an antigen-presenting cell (APC), which is the first cell to secrete activating signals?
Helper T cells (cytokines to activate the APCs)
1654
Which type of cell is responsible for immunologic memory?
Memory B cell
1655
What region of the immunoglobulin does not change with class switching?
Hypervariable region
1656
What type of cell does an antigen-stimulated B cell turn into if there is a continuous supply of antigen?
Plasma cell
1657
What three cells are essential for T cell differentiation in the thymus?
1. Dendritic cells 2. Macrophages 3. Thymic epithelial cells
1658
What type of T cell leaves the bone marrow?
Pre-T cell (unable to recognize antigen)
1659
What cytokine stimulates stem cell differentiation?
IL-3
1660
What form of T cell binds to mature B cells?
Activated helper T cell
1661
What co-stimulatory molecules are necessary for effective T cell and B cell signaling?
B7 and CD28 (stimulatory signal for the T cell)
1662
At which site of the lymph node are B cells found?
The germinal centers (follicles)
1663
What are the two primary lymphoid organs?
1. Bone marrow 2. Thymus
1664
What cytokine, produced by stromal cells of the bone marrow, is important in myeloid development?
IL-3 A " 3" on its side looks like an m for myeloid
1665
What immunoglobulins are found in an infant at birth?
Maternal IgG and fetal IgM
1666
What cell surface marker is found on blood B cells?
CD19
1667
What cell surface marker do all T cells have?
CD3
1668
What is the major antigen-trapping site in the immune system?
The lymph node
1669
What cells are the first to come into contact with soluble antigen in the lymph node?
Macrophages or dendritic cells
1670
In which region of the lymph node do plasma cells spend their lives secreting antibodies?
Medulla
1671
What cell surface marker is found on activated helper T cells?
CD40
1672
In which region of the lymph node are T cells found?
Paracortex
1673
Myeloperoxidase uses H202 and what to generate additional oxidants?
Halide cofactor (Cl-, I-)
1674
What is the main cell type of chronic inflammation?
Macrophages
1675
What aspect of the complement system is deficient if there are repeated gonococcal infections and recurrent episodes of meningococcal meningitis?
C5, 6 ,7, or 8
1676
A deficiency in C1 esterase (C1-INH) results in what disease?
Hereditary angioedema
1677
What form of immunity kills the host cell in order to recover from intracellular infections?
Cell-mediated immunity
1678
With what area of the spleen are the T cells associated?
Periarteriolar Lymphatic Sheath (PALS)
1679
What are the three secondary lymphoid tissues?
1. Lymph nodes 2. Spleen 3. Mucosal-Associated Lymphoid Tissue (MALT)
1680
What type of cell can never leave the lymph node?
Plasma cell
1681
What is the B cell-dependent area of the spleen?
The marginal zone
1682
Which major cell type is found in the red pulp of the spleen?
RBCs-that is why it is called red pulp.
1683
At what stage of the immune response do you see an increase in serum specific antibody levels?
Log phase
1684
What cytokines do APCs secrete to activate helper T cells?
IL-1, IL-6, TNF-a
1685
What immunoglobulin is responsible for antibody- dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) of parasites, has a high-affinity Fc receptor on mast cells and basophils, and is responsible for the allergic response?
IgE
1686
What immunoglobulin is responsible for activation of complement, opsonization, and ADCC, and is actively transported across the placenta?
IgG
1687
What immunoglobulin activates the alternate pathway, neutralizes bacterial endotoxins and viruses, and prevents bacterial adherence?
IgA
1688
What are defined by antigen-binding specificity?
Idiotypes
1689
What are the genetic variants of a molecule within members of the same species?
Allotypes
1690
What are different classes and subclasses of the same gene products known as?
Isotypes
1691
What are the four phases of immune system defense?
1. Recognition 2. Amplification 3. Regulation 4. Elimination-Rare
1692
What is the term for a molecule that will trigger an immune response?
Immunogen (It must be foreign and have at least two antigenic determinants.)
1693
What MHC class does not participate in immune cell communication by direct contact?
MHC class III
1694
What types of T cell receptors (TCRs) comprise 95% of all TCRs?
Alpha and beta chains
1695
Which TCRs are found on the skin and mucosal surfaces?
Gamma and delta TCRs
1696
What type of graft transplants from one individual to another with a different genetic makeup (within the same species)?
Allograft
1697
What type of graft transplants from one site to another on the same person?
Autograft
1698
What is the term for the strength of association between multiple antibody-binding sites and multiple antigenic determinants?
Avidity (greater than one binding site)
1699
How is IgA found in secretions?
As a dimer; it is a monomer in the blood.
1700
What is the limited portion of a large antigen that will actually be recognized and bound to an antibody and contains approximately five to six amino acids or four to five hexose units?
Antigenic determinant (epitope) (Idiotypes bind to epitopes.)
1701
What would be the result if an antibody were cleaved with papain?
There would be two Fab and Fc regions.
1702
What would be the result if an antibody were cleaved with pepsin?
There would be a Fab' region; thus, it would still be able to participate in precipitation and agglutination.
1703
What type of binding is involved when there is binding of one Fab or one idiotype of IgG?
Affinity
1704
What cytokines are secreted by helper T cells to activate the APC?
INF-y and IL-4
1705
What acts as a target for elimination of abnormal host cells?
MHC class I
1706
At what stage of an immune response do we see stable levels of antibody in the serum?
Plateau phase
1707
At what stage of an immune response do we see catabolism without synthesis of antibody, causing a decline in the levels?
Antigen processing
1708
What stage of the immune response is involved from the time when we are first presented with an antigen to the first time that there are detectable levels of antibody in the serum?
Lag phase
1709
What response involves elevated levels of antibody and a short lag phase, and requires low levels of antigen to precipitate?
Secondary response
1710
Whose function is it to present exogenous peptides to helper T cells?
MHC class II
1711
What process is involved when an antigen is in the endocytic vacuole and there is fusion with lysosomes, which contain proteases that cleave the protein antigens into peptide fragments?
Antigen processing
1712
Which four helper T cell cytokines are involved in differentiation?
I. IL-4 2. IL-5 3. IL-6 4. IL-10
1713
Which co-stimulatory molecules are necessary for B cell differentiation (class switching)?
CD40 and CD40L (gp39)
1714
Which cytokine is chemotactic for neutrophils?
IL-8
1715
Which nondividing cells synthesize immunoglobulins in great amounts?
Plasma cells
1716
Which process is involved in rearranging the DNA that encodes for the constant region of the heavy chain?
Class switching
1717
What are the two functions of the thymus in T cell differentiation?
1. Hormone secretion for T cell differentiation 2. T cell education to recognize self from nonself
1718
Which process is involved in rearranging one heavy chain gene to produce a functional gene product, while it shuts off the rearrangement and expression of the other alleles to ensure that one antibody type is made?
Allelic exclusion
1719
What are the three rules of clonal selection?
1. One cell type 2. One antibody type 3. Random selection of hypervariable regions, and only cells with bound antigen undergo clonal expansion
1720
When is the last time that maternal IgG is seen in circulation?
Between 9 and 15 months
1721
What cytokine, produced by stromal cells of the bone marrow, is important in lymphoid development?
IL-7 A "7" upside down looks like an "L" (L for Lymphoid).
1722
Which region of the thymus contains the mature T cells?
The medulla (They mature in the cortex.)
1723
What are the cell surface markers of helper T cells?
CD28 and CD4
1724
What are the cell surface markers of cytotoxic T cells?
CD28 and CD8
1725
Which complement fragments cause lysis of cells?
C5b-9
1726
Which complement fragment is deficient if a patient presents with repeated infections, fever, rash, and arthralgia?
C3
1727
What three factors cause opsonization?
IgG, C3b, and mannose binding protein
1728
Which cell surface marker binds to C3d fragments?
CD21
1729
What disease is associated with an inherited deficiency in NADPH oxidase, in which the individual is likely to develop infections with catalase-positive organisms?
Chronic granulomatous disease
1730
What cells are antigen-specific and have MHC restricted killing?
Cytotoxic T cells
1731
What large granular lymphocytes have CD16 and CD56 as cell surface markers, do not secrete immunoglobulins, and are not antigen specific?
NK cells
1732
What three complement fragments are also anaphylatoxins?
1. C3a 2. C4a 3. C5a
1733
What pathology is associated with low levels of immunoglobulin that persist in children for up to 2 years?
Transient hypogammaglobulinemia of childhood
1734
What cell surface marker is found on pre-T cells?
Tdt
1735
What cell surface marker is required for class switching?
CD40
1736
What large granular lymphocytes are stimulated by IL-2 and INF-y and are activated by natural killer (NK) cells?
Lymphokine-activated killer (LAK) cells
1737
Which cells recognize the Fc region of IgG and carry out ADCC?
Killer cells
1738
What are the four chemotactic agents?
1. C5a 2. Leukotriene B4 3. IL-8 4. Bacterial peptides
1739
What are the five main oxidizing reactions that are used to kill ingested organisms?
1. H202 2. Superoxide 3. Hydroxyl radical 4. Myeloperoxidase 5. Hypochlorous acid
1740
True or false-it is perfectly normal to have low levels of IgG from 3 to 12 months of age?
True; it is called physiologic hypogammaglobulinemia of infancy.
1741
What valve of the heart is most commonly affected in IV drug abusers?
Tricuspid valve
1742
What is the first sign of reversible cellular damage?
Ballooning or hydropic changes secondary to mitochondrial injury
1743
What is another name for isolated right-sided heartfailure?
Cor pulmonale
1744
What region of the aorta is affected in syphilitic (luetic) aneurysms?
Ascending arch or the root
1745
What organism is associated with hyaline membrane formation and cold agglutinins?
Mycoplasma
1746
What cell type is commonly elevated in asthma?
Eosinophils
1747
What enzyme level is commonly elevated in sarcoidosis?
Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
1748
What form of lung cancer is commonly associated with asbestosis?
Malignant mesothelioma
1749
With what protein-losing enteropathy do you see hypertrophied gastric rugal folds?
Menetrier's syndrome
1750
What region of the GI tract does Giardia lamblia most commonly affect?
Duodenum
1751
What organism is associated with "flask-shaped" ulcers?
Entamoeba histolytica
1752
What hepatic pathology is associated with ingestion of oral contraceptives?
Liver adenoma
1753
True or false alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency can lead to cirrhosis of the liver?
True; it is most commonly associated with panacinar emphysema of the lower lobes.
1754
What organism is associated with cholangiocarcinoma?
Clonorchis sinensis
1755
True or false-polycythemia is associated with renal cell carcinoma?
True, because there is an increase in erythropoietin
1756
What cancer of the male genitourinary system is associated with osteoblastic bony metastasis?
Prostatic carcinoma
1757
What organism is commonly associated with IUD infections?
Actinomyces
1758
What female genitourinary pathology is associated with elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and has a "snowstorm" appearance on an ultrasound?
Hydatidiform mole
1759
What subset of leukemia involves gingival hypertrophy?
Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML)-M5, also called acute myelogenous leukemia
1760
What chemical pathogen is associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the skin?
Arsenic
1761
With what form of cancer is diethylstilbestrol (DES) associated?
Vaginal clear cell adenoma
1762
What form of cancer is most commonly associated with nitrosamines?
Gastric cancer
1763
What cellular process defines irreversible cellular injury?
Vacuolation of the mitochondria
1764
Antinuclear antibodies (ANA), anti-dSDNA, and smooth muscle antigen (Sm ag) are all used to diagnose what disease?
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
1765
SS-A(Ro), SS-B(La), and R-ANA are diagnostic markers of what disease?
Sjogren's disease
1766
What disease is characterized by decreased bone resorption due to defective osteoclast function?
Osteopetrosis (Albers- Schonberg disease)
1767
What metaplastic cellular change (from what cell type to what cell type) occurs in Barren's esophagus?
Squamous to columnar cell (adenocarcinoma)
1768
Antinuclear antibodies (ANAs) and anti-SCL-70 antibodies are diagnostic of what disease?
Scleroderma
1769
What T cell defect is found in Graves' disease?
Defect in antigen-specific suppressor T cells
1770
A gastric mucosal erosion caused by extensive burns to the body surface is known as what?
Curling's ulcer (Burns = hot = curling iron) VXP
1771
A superficial gastric mucosal erosion causing an excessive secretion of pepsin, due to an increase in intracranial pressure from trauma or surgical injury to the CNS, is known as what?
Cushing's ulcer
1772
What two antibodies are used to diagnose Hashimoto's thyroiditis?
Antithyroglobulin and antimicrosomal antibodies
1773
What is the term for the copper corneal deposits found in Wilson's disease?
Kayser-Fleischer rings
1774
What is the triad of Meig's syndrome?
1. Right-sided hydrothorax 2. Ascites 3. Ovarian fibroma
1775
What is the triad of Plummer-Vinson syndrome?
1. Atrophic glossitis 2. Esophageal webs 3. Iron-deficiency anemia
1776
In multiple myeloma, what are the immunoglobulin protein droplets within plasma cells called?
Russell bodies
1777
Obstetric hemorrhage or shock to the anterior pituitary leads to what syndrome?
Sheehan's syndrome (approximately 90% destruction of the pituitary)
1778
What is the term for a twisting of a loop of bowel leading to an obstruction?
Volvulus
1779
In what condition is a strawberry gallbladder seen?
Cholesterolosis
1780
What is the term for a palpable left supraclavicular lymph node?
Virchow's node (due to metastatic gastric carcinoma)
1781
What pathology is associated with Budd-Chiari syndrome?
Hepatic venous thrombus
1782
Cell fragments of hemolysis are known as what?
Helmet cells (schistocytes)
1783
What is the name given to the red blood cell that contains a peripheral rim of hemoglobin along with a dark central area containing hemoglobin?
Target cell
1784
What are the three causes of a microvesicular fatty change in the liver?
1. Tetracycline toxicity 2. Reye's syndrome 3. Fatty liver of pregnancy
1785
Abnormal, unstable RNA within a developing RBC is known as what?
Basophilic stippling
1786
What is the term for an RBC with inorganic iron-containing granules?
Siderocyte
1787
A patient presenting with dark urine, pale stools, and itchy skin has what form of jaundice?
Obstructive (direct) jaundice
1788
...
With what form of hepatitis do you see elevated levels of AST (SGOT) and GGT liver enzymes?
1789
In both alcoholic 2nd viral hepatitis, AST and ALT are elevated. SGOT > SGPT in alcoholic hepatitis, and SGPT > SGOT in viral hepatitis.
What region of the liver is affected during shock?
1790
Pericentral (necrotic) region
What drug can cause amyloidosis and focal segmental glomerulosclerosis in the kidney?
1791
Heroin
What type of metal poisoning causes basophilic stippling?
1792
Lead
What drug causes a six- fold increase in schizophrenia, can impair motor activity, and can cause lung problems?
1793
Marijuana
...
1794
With what disease do you see dust-containing macrophages within a reticulin mesh?
Coal workers' pneumoconiosis
1795
With what two pathologies is a honeycomb lung associated?
1. Asbestosis 2. Silicosis
1796
What is Caplan's syndrome?
Rheumatoid arthritis with silicosis
1797
What chemical can be potentially dangerous if you work in the aerospace industry or in nuclear plants?
Beryllium
1798
What are the three causes of angiosarcoma of the liver?
1. Vinyl chloride 2. Thorium dioxide 3. Arsenic
1799
What causes acellular fibrosis in the upper zone of the lung?
Silicosis
1800
What dye is a major cause of transitional cell carcinoma of the urinary bladder?
Naphthalene
1801
Interstitial fibrosis of the lower lobe is pathognomonic of what?
Asbestosis
1802
With what is cherry red intoxication associated?
Acute carbon monoxide poisoning
1803
With what disease do you see Brushfield's spots?
Down syndrome
1804
What is the causative organism associated with: Acute infectious endocarditis?
Staphylococcus aureus; Aureus begins with an "a" just like acute.
1805
Subacute infectious endocarditis?
Streptococcus viridans
1806
What percentage of a vessel is stenosed in order to cause sudden cardiac death?
Greater than 75% of the vessel
1807
What foci of fibrinoid necrosis are surrounded by lymphocytes and macrophages throughout all the layers of the heart?
Aschoff's bodies of rheumatic fever
1808
What cardiac pathology are children with pharyngeal infections more likely to develop?
Rheumatic heart disease
1809
Where is the embolism site for a right-sided heart lesion?
The lungs
1810
What is the term for white retinal spots surrounded by hemorrhage?
Roth's spots
1811
In what condition are they seen?
In bacterial endocarditis
1812
The painless hemorrhagic areas on the palms and soles in a patient with bacterial endocarditis are known as what?
Janeway lesions
1813
What pathology involves a diastolic blood pressure greater than 90 mmHg or a systolic blood pressure greater than 140 mmHg?
Hypertension
1814
What are the four cardiac abnormalities associated with tetralogy of Fallot?
1. Shifting of the aorta 2. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle 3. Interventricular septal defect 4. Pulmonary stenosis 3X (SHIP)
1815
What term applies when a single vessel receives blood from both ventricles?
Truncus arteriosus
1816
How do you diagnose a patient who presents with an underdeveloped right ventricle, atrial septal defect, and no tricuspid valve?
Tricuspid atresia
1817
What are the three left-to-right shunts?
1. Ventricular septa] defect (VSD) 2. Atrial septal defect (ASD) 3. Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
1818
What type of coarctation of the aorta is associated with Turner's syndrome?
Preductal (infantile) type
1819
Which leaflet is most commonly affected in mitral valve prolapse?
Posterior leaflet due to the long chordae tendineae
1820
What disease affects medium to small arteries, occurs most commonly in men, is associated with elevated perinuclear anti-neutrophilic cytoplasmic antibody (P-ANCA) levels to myeloperoxidase, and involves 30% of patients with hepatitis Bs antigen?
Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) Remember by P in P-ANCA and P in PAN.
1821
With what disease do you see IgA deposits in small vessels of the skin and the kidneys?
Henoch-Schonlein purpura
1822
What type of vasculitis presents with headache, facial pain, and sometimes loss of vision?
Temporal arteritis (usually in women older than 80 years of age)
1823
What type of vasculitis affects children, has conjunctival involvement associated with skin rash and lymphadenopathy, and involves 70% of persons with coronary artery aneurysms?
Kawasaki disease; Think kids, koronary, konjunctiva-Kawasaki
1824
What is the difference between a true aneurysm and a false aneurysm?
A true aneurysm is the bulging of an arterial wall that is intact, whereas a false aneurysm is a rupture where a sac is formed by the tissue adjacent to the artery.
1825
With what lung pathology do you see a collapsed leathery lung?
Acute respiratory distress syndrome CARDS)
1826
In which region of the lung are 75% of the pulmonary infarcts seen?
Lower lobes
1827
What is it called when the cervical lymph node is involved in Tb?
Scrofula
1828
What is the difference between Raynaud's disease and Raynaud's phenomenon?
Disease occurs when there is vasospasm in a small artery without any underlying pathology, whereas a phenomenon has some underlying pathology associated with it.
1829
What is the difference between a Ghon focus and a Ghon complex?
A Ghon focus is a TB tubercle, whereas a Ghon complex is a focus with hilar lymph node involvement.
1830
What is the term for laminated concretions of Ca2+ and protein found in granulomas, especially sarcoidosis?
Schaumann's bodies
1831
What condition is manifested by bilateral sarcoidosis of the parotid glands, submaxillary gland, and submandibular gland with posterior uveal tract involvement?
Mikulicz's syndrome
1832
In what autosomal recessive (AR) disease do you see a decrease in adenine triphosphatase (ATPase) activity of dynein arms in cilia, also known as immotile cilia syndrome?
Kartagener's syndrome
1833
What disease involves a decrease in al-antitrypsin activity, causing all the alveoli to be affected?
Panacinar emphysema
1834
What lung pathology involves columnar to squamous cell metaplasia and cannot be diagnosed unless the patient has 3 months of productive sputum for 2 years or more?
Chronic bronchitis
1835
What bronchogenic carcinoma: Is found in the peripheral aspect of the lung and is known as the "scar" carcinoma?
Adenocarcinoma
1836
Has a poor prognosis because 50% of the cases have metastasized to the brain by diagnosis?
Undifferentiated cell carcinoma
1837
What hematoma involves lucid intervals and affects the middle meningeal artery?
Epidural hematoma
1838
What renal pathology involves uniform thickening of the glomerular capillary wall, "granular" appearance under the microscope, and effacement of foot processes?
Membranous glomerulonephritis (MGN)
1839
What syndrome has massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, and anasarca as its components?
Nephrotic syndrome
1840
What renal pathology is associated with an alteration of the basement membrane and mesangial cell proliferation, along with a tram-track appearance under the microscope?
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN)
1841
What is the triad of renal cell carcinoma?
1. Hematuria 2. Costovertebral pain 3. A palpable mass
1842
What is the most common type of kidney stone?
Calcium oxalate
1843
In what condition do you see "dimpling" on the kidney's surface?
Pyelonephritis
1844
What are the four most common metastatic sites for renal cell carcinoma?
1. Lung 2. Liver 3. Brain 4. Bone
1845
What is the causative organism involved in squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder?
Schistosomiasis haematobia
1846
Is cigarette smoking associated with transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder?
Yes. It is also a cause of cancers of the lung, esophagus, ureter, and kidney, just to name a few.
1847
What type of peptic ulcers is associated with elevated gastric secretions and blood group O and responds well to cimetidine?
Duodenal ulcer, whereas gastric ulcers are associated with blood group A and low gastric secretions
1848
What GI pathology can be caused by a patient taking clindamycin or lincomycin or by Clostridium diffcile, ischemia, Staphylococcus, Shigella, or Candida infections?
Pseudomembranous colitis
1849
How is Pseudomembranous colitis treated?
With vancomycin or metronidazole
1850
What regions of the GI tract are the most common sites of peptic ulcers?
The lesser curvature of the stomach and the first part of the duodenum
1851
What three criteria allow you to differentiate an ulcer from an erosion or carcinoma?
1. Less than 3 cm 2. Clean base 3. Level with the surrounding mucosa
1852
What is the watershed area of the GI tract?
It is the most common site of ischemic bowel disease (splenic flexure of large bowel).
1853
What is the term for hypoperfusion of an area involving only the inner layers?
Mural infarct
1854
Failure of neural crest cells to migrate to the rectum and sigmoid colon is known as what?
Hirschsprung's disease (congenital megacolon)
1855
What is the term for the irregular linear lacerations in the long axis of the esophagus seen in chronic alcoholics?
Mallory-Weiss tears
1856
What is the condition in which progressive dysphagia and regurgitation occur owing to failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax when swallowing is initiated?
Achalasia (can also be seen in Chagas' disease)
1857
With what autosomal dominant disease do you see polyps in the GI tract that can be large and pedunculated, along with melanin pigmentation of the oral mucosa, lips, and palms?
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome (rarely predisposes to colon cancer)
1858
What is the most common hemolytic anemia that has an elevated reticulocyte count and a positive result on a Coombs' test?
Autoimmune/immune hemolytic anemia
1859
What is the first sign of megaloblasdc anemia on a blood smear?
Hypersegmented polymorphonucleocytes (more than five lobes)
1860
With what autosomal dominant disease do you see osteomas in the mandible and maxilla, epidermoid cysts, and edematous polyps in the GI tract?
Gardner's syndrome
1861
In what autosomal recessive disease do you see a decrease in ceruloplasmin, micronodular cirrhosis, and Kayser-Fleischer rings?
Wilson's disease
1862
What is the term for the smooth, round fragments of nuclear chromatin seen in RBCs?
Howell-Jolly bodies
1863
What form of hepatitis involves Kupffer's cell hyperplasia, ballooning hepatocytes, councilman bodies, and an increase in ALT?
Viral hepatitis
1864
What X-linked recessive disease involves a decrease in hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRT), mental retardation, self-mutilation, choreoathetosis, and spasticity and an increase in uricemia?
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
1865
In what X-linked recessive disease is there a decrease in the hexose monophosphate (HMP) shunt, along with Heinz body formation?
G-6-PD deficiency (glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency)
1866
What illegal drug can cause rhabdomyolysis, myocardial infarction, cerebral infarct, and lethal cardiac arrhythmias?
Cocaine
1867
What type of metal poisoning causes mental retardation, somnolence, convulsions, and encephalopathy?
Lead
1868
What type of acute metal poisoning involves stomach and colon erosion and acute tubular necrosis?
Mercury
1869
What enzyme level increases in hours and falls 24 to 48 hours after a myocardial infarction?
Creatinine phospholanase (CPK)
1870
What form of infectious endocarditis is most likely to metastasize?
Acute infectious endocarditis
1871
What is the terminology for the secondary disease of benign hypertension in the kidney?
Benign nephrosclerosis
1872
What is the term for the appearance of the kidney in malignant hypertension (it has petechiae on its surface)?
Flea-bitten kidney (can also be seen in pyelonephritis)
1873
What is the term for fibrinoid necrosis of the arterioles in the kidney secondary to malignant hypertension?
Onion skinning
1874
What are the three most common sites for left-sided heart embolisms to metastasize?
1. Brain 2. Spleen 3. Kidney
1875
What enzyme levels increase in 6 to 8 hours, peak in 24 to 48 hours, and fall 4 to 8 days after an MI?
SGOT
1876
What are the four right-to-left shunts?
1. Tricuspid atresia 2. Truncus arteriosus 3. Transposition of the great vessels 4. Tetralogy of Fallot; All of the Ts
1877
What form of angina pectoris is classically brought on by exercise or by an elevated heart rate?
Stable angina (S-T depressions are seen on EKG.)
1878
What form of angina pectoris is the most serious and is referred to as "preinfarction angina"?
Unstable angina
1879
What marker increases in 12 hours, peaks in 48 to 72 hours, and falls in 1 to 2 weeks after an MI?
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)-1 > 2
1880
What form of angina pectoris is caused by coronary artery vasospasms?
Prinzmetal's angina (variant). S-T elevations are seen on EKG.
1881
What is the condition that involves focal accumulations of basophilic, mutinous extracellular substance in the media of the aorta?
Cystic medial necrosis
1882
When do you see an elevated blood pressure in the upper extremities with hypotension in the lower extremities?
Coarctation of the aorta (postductal), adult type
1883
What is the characteristic radiographic finding in postductal coarctation of the aorta?
Notching of the ribs due to dilated internal mammary arteries
1884
What test uses p24 protein when diagnosing HIV?
ELISA test (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay test)
1885
What type of vasculitis occurs in male heavy smokers, typically younger than 35 years of age, that can cause gangrene in the lower extremities?
Buerger's disease
1886
Low to absent levels of pulmonary surfactant along with hyaline membrane formation is the hallmark of what?
NRDS (neonatal respiratory distress syndrome)
1887
What form of emphysema affects the upper lobes, increases in smokers, and has carbon deposits distal to the affected areas?
Centriacinar emphysema
1888
Is right ventricular hypertrophy (RVH) in utero a sign of coaretation of the aorta?
Yes, if you are referring to preductal or infantile coarctation of the aorta; congestive heart failure is also a sign of the infantile form.
1889
What tumor involves an increase in 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid; is associated with skin flushing, cramps, diarrhea, and nausea; and affects the valves on the right side of the heart along with the endocardium?
Carcinoid tumor of the heart
1890
What is the consolidation around the small bronchi known as?
Bronchopneumonia
1891
What disease usually occurs in men in their 40s who present with persistent pneumonia, chronic sinusitis, renal disease, and mucosal alterations, and show an increase in cytoplasmic antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibodies (C-ANCAs)?
Wegener's granulomatosis
1892
What disease involves a weakened pulse and hypotension in the upper extremities, visual problems, and dizzy spells and occurs in Asian females who are 15 to 45 years of age?
Takayasu's arteritis (pulseless disease)
1893
What bronchogenic carcinoma occurs most commonly in men and smokers; is found centrally; and can have eetopic production of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) or antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?
Small-cell carcinoma (oat cell)
1894
What bronchogenic carcinoma is commonly associated with Addison's disease?
Squamous cell carcinoma
1895
What disease, diagnosed by exclusion, involves bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and noncaseating granulomas in many organs and is most commonly seen in black women?
Sarcoidosis
1896
What causes a nutmeg liver?
Right-sided heart failure
1897
What bronchogenic carcinoma is associated with an elevated level of Cat+, involves keratin pearls, occurs in men more than women, is associated with smoking, occurs in the major bronchi, and is seen in the central areas of the lung?
Squamous cell carcinoma
1898
What GI pathology involves a loss of villi and a decrease in the absorptive area due to gluten sensitivity?
Celiac disease
1899
What tumor spreads via the lymphatic system into the peritoneum, rectal shelf, and both ovaries, secondary to metastatic gastric carcinoma?
Krukenberg's tumor
1900
What is necrosis and distortion of liver architecture with nodular regeneration and fibrosis known as?
Cirrhosis
1901
What disease is due to increased iron deposits causing congestive heart failure (CHF), bronze diabetes, and micronodular cirrhosis?
Hemochromatosis
1902
What autosomal dominant syndrome involves 1000 or more edematous polyps, most commonly affects the colorectal area, and is associated with chromosome 5q21?
Familial poly posis coli
1903
What autosomal dominant disease involves hyperkeratosis of the palms and soles in association with esophageal carcinoma?
Tylosis
1904
What primary carcinoma is associated with signet ring cells?
Gastric carcinoma
1905
What liver pathology involves an increase in AST, GGT, Mallory bodies, fatty change, and micronodular cirrhosis?
Chronic alcoholism
1906
What is the term for a reversible change in which one adult cell type is replaced by another adult cell type?
Metaplasia
1907
What is a decrease in the size of cells because of the loss of structural components known as?
Atrophy
1908
What hemoglobin-derived pigment contains iron?
Hemosiderin
1909
What brown-black pigment is derived from the oxidation of tyrosine?
Melanin
1910
What form of necrosis is seen in the lower extremity or the bowel due to vascular occlusion?
Gangrenous necrosis
1911
What is the term for depositions of Ca2+ in normal tissue due to hypercalcemia?
Metastatic calcifications
1912
What is the most common type of necrosis?
Coagulative necrosis
1913
What is the increase in the number of cells known as?
Hyperplasia
1914
What form of necrosis is caused by the actions of lipases on adipose tissue, seen in acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis?
Fat necrosis
1915
What is the term for cells that have undergone proliferation and atypical cytologic alterations involving all sizes, shapes, and orientations?
Dysplasia
1916
What pigment, called the "aging pigment," is due to free radical injury and lipid peroxidation and is seen in brown atrophy?
Lipofuscin
1917
The increase in the size of cells due to synthesis, causing an increase in the size of the organ, is known as what?
Hypertrophy
1918
What is the term for a collection of epithelioid cells surrounded by a rim of lymphocytes?
Granuloma
1919
What form of necrosis is caused by immune-mediated vascular damage?
Fibrinoid necrosis
1920
What is the term for excess amounts of granulation tissue that can block re-epithelialization and wound healing?
Proud flesh
1921
In what rare autosomal recessive disorder do you see neutropenia, defective degranulation, and delayed microbial killing due to a problem in chemotaxis and migration?
Chediak-Higashi syndrome
1922
What is the main cell type of chronic inflammation?
Macrophages (from blood monocytes)
1923
What are the two main components of granulation tissue?
1. Fibroblasts 2. Neovascularization
1924
What causes platelets to bind to the collagen of the basement membrane?
von Willebrand's factor (factor VIII)
1925
What is the term for ischemia to the CNS causing dissolution of the tissue due to the actions of hydrolytic enzymes?
Liquefactive necrosis
1926
What is a sudden loss of oxygen to tissue, causing death of the cells because of a cessation of blood flowing to a particular area, known as?
Coagulative necrosis (most common in heart and kidneys)
1927
What is the term for depositions of Ca2+ in nonviable or dying tissue, when the calcium level in the blood is normal?
Dystrophic calcifications
1928
What type of necrosis is seen as a part of granulomatous inflammation?
Gaseous necrosis
1929
What are the three causes of transudate?
1. CHF 2. Cirrhosis 3. Nephrosis
1930
What is the type of healing that occurs in a clean surgical incision?
Primary intention
1931
What protein causes clot retraction?
Thrombosthenin
1932
What protein acts as a binding factor in wound healing and embryogenesis?
Fibronectin
1933
What IgE-mediated cell secretes major basic protein and has elevated levels in the blood during asthma and parasitic infections?
Eosinophils
1934
What are the three platelet aggregating factors?
1. Adenosine diphosphate (ADP) 2. Prostaglandin 3. Thromboxane A2 (TXA2)
1935
What is the triad of fat embolism?
1. Petechiae 2. Hyperactive mental status 3. Occurs within 24 to 48 hours of the initial insult (e.g., long bone fracture)
1936
An intense inflammatory reaction, an increase in the amounts of granulation tissue and wound contraction by myofibroblasts are the characteristics of what?
Healing by secondary intention
1937
What are the two most common origins of pulmonary embolism?
1. Deep veins of the legs 2. The prostatic plexus of veins in the pelvis
1938
What is a localized area of necrosis caused by circulatory insufficiency known as?
Infarction
1939
What is the term for an abnormal amount of collagen type III that produces a large bulging scar, seen primarily in blacks?
Keloid
1940
What component of the basement membrane binds to collagen type IV and heparin sulfate and is a cell surface receptor?
Laminin
1941
What is the term for an excessive production of collagen that flattens out and does not extend beyond the site of the injury?
Hypertrophic scar
1942
What are the three Bs of adult polycystic kidneys?
1. Big 2. Bilateral 3. Berry aneurysm
1943
What pathway in the coagulation cascade is activated after tissue injury?
Extrinsic pathway
1944
What is an intravascular mass that is carried from its point of origin to a distant site known as?
Embolism
1945
In what disease do you see horseshoe kidneys, rockerbottom feet, low-set ears, micrognathia, and mental retardation?
Edward's syndrome (trisomy 18)
1946
What genetic disease has an increased risk for developing carcinoma of the breast?
Klinefelter's syndrome
1947
What is the predominant cell type of humoral immunity?
B lymphocytes
1948
What protein causes fibrinolysis?
Plasmin
1949
What factors in the coagulation cascade need Ca2+ to be activated?
Factors II and X
1950
What tumor comprises 40% of all testicular tumors in children?
Teratoma
1951
What most common germ cell tumor can be detected by elevated hCG levels and metastasizes to the bone, lung, and liver?
Choriocarcinoma
1952
What pathway in the coagulation cascade is activated by making contact with foreign substances?
Intrinsic pathway
1953
What protein is a common activator of the coagulation, 6brinolytic, and inflammatory systems?
Hageman factor (XII)
1954
What factors in the coagulation cascade need factor Ila (activated) to become activated?
Factors V and VIII
1955
What lobe of the brain is most commonly affected by herpes virus?
Temporal lobe
1956
What disease involves microcephaly, mental retardation, cleft lip or palate, and dextrocardia?
Patau's syndrome (trisomy 13)
1957
What disease, caused by decompression sickness, leads to multiple foci of ischemic necrosis that affect the head of the femur, humerus, and tibia?
Caisson's disease
1958
What type of hemostasis occurs in an intravascular space and consists of fibrin, platelets, and red and white blood cells?
Thrombus
1959
What disease involves mental retardation, flat face, muscle hypotonia, and a "double-bubble" sign on an x-ray and poses an increased risk of Alzheimer's disease and acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)?
Down syndrome (trisomy 21)
1960
What are the three components of amyloid?
1. Fibrillary protein 2. Amyloid protein 3. Glycosaminoglycans
1961
What type of hypersensitivity is mediated by IgE?
Type I hypersensitivity
1962
What type of hypersensitivity involves the antigen-antibody complex and activates complement, leading to tissue injury?
Type III hypersensitivity
1963
What type of hypersensitivity involves serum sickness, SLE, Arthus reaction, and acute glomerulonephritis?
Type III hypersensitivity
1964
What test uses gp120 protein when diagnosing HIV?
Western blot test
1965
What disease involves a patient with dry eyes and dry mouth; is associated with other collagen vascular diseases and B cell dysfunction; occurs in women more than men; and poses an increased risk of the patient developing a high-grade B cell lymphoma?
Sjogren's disease
1966
What is the most common fungal infection in HIV?
Candida
1967
What is the most common infectious agent in HIV?
Pneumocystis carinii
1968
What are the two most common viral infections in HIV?
1. CMV retinitis 2. HSV-2
1969
What is the most common opportunistic infection of the CNS in HIV?
Toxoplasmosis
1970
What is the term for a hospital-acquired infection?
Nosocomial infection
1971
What are the four DNA oncogenic viruses?
1. HPV (human papilloma virus) 2. EBV (Epstein-Barr virus) 3. Hepatitis B 4. Kaposi's sarcoma- HSI/?
1972
What disease is X-linked recessive, presents with eczema thrombocytopenia and an increased chance of developing recurrent infections, involves a decrease in serum IgM and in the T cell-dependent paracortical areas of the lymph nodes, and means that the patient is likely to develop malignant lymphoma?
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
1973
What is the most common pathway for carcinomas to spread?
Via lymphatics
1974
With what are the following microscopic changes associated: loss of polarity, anaplasia, pleomorphism, discohesiveness, increase in the nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio, hyperchromasia, and increase in the rate of mitosis?
Malignancy
1975
What is the most common pathway for sarcoma to spread?
Hematogenous pathway
1976
What is the most common complement deficiency?
C2 deficiency
1977
What type of erythema do you see in: Ulcerative colitis?
Erythema nodosum
1978
Rheumatic fever?
Erythema marginatum
1979
Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
Erythema multiforme
1980
What is the triad of meningitis?
1. Fever 2. Headache 3. Stiff neck (Nausea, photophobia, and irritability are also commonly seen in patients with meningitis.)
1981
What carcinoma in the thyroid involves stromal amyloidosis and an excessive release of calcitonin?
Medullary carcinoma
1982
What is the name for an adenoma in the adrenal glands that causes elevated levels of aldosterone?
Conn's syndrome-page230
1983
What does prepubertal hypersecretion of growth hormone lead to?
Gigantism
1984
What is an ACTH-secreting tumor in the pituitary gland known as?
Cushing's disease
1985
What is a beta cell tumor that secretes an excess of gastrin, which causes multiple peptic ulcers in aberrant locations, known as?
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
1986
What type of pancreatic tumor has the following common signs: hypoglycemia, hunger, sweating, tremors, seizures, and coma?
Insulinoma
1987
The most common causes of osteomyelitis: Overall?
Staphylococcus aureus
1988
In neonates?
Streptococcus agalactiae
1989
In patients with sickle cell disease?
Staphylococcus aureu.s (but they are more prone to developing salmonella infections)
1990
In drug addicts?
P.seudomonas
1991
What renal disease in diabetic patients is seen as a halo of capillaries around the mesangial nodules?
Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease
1992
With what pancreatic tumor do you see watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and achlorhydria?
Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) tumor of the pancreas
1993
What are the four most common causes of femoral head necrosis?
1. Steroids 2. Alcohol 3. Scuba diving 4. Sickle cell anemia
1994
What bone pathology is associated with teenagers, occurrence in men more than women, hematogenous spread to the lungs, and Codman's triangle on an x-ray?
Osteosarcoma
1995
What is the collapse of the vertebral body due to Tb known as?
Pott's disease
1996
What pathology is associated with cartilage formation in the bone of the jaw, shoulder, and pelvic girdle and presents in middle age?
Chondrosarcoma
1997
What disease is found in persons in the 20- to 40-year-old age range; affects women more than men; occurs at the epiphysis of the knee; and is seen as a "soap bubble" appearance on an x-ray?
Giant cell tumor of the bone
1998
What disease is seen in the first or second generations; is associated with chromosome 11,22; affects men more than women; and has pseudorosettes and an onion- skin layering formation?
Ewing's sarcoma
1999
What joint is affected causing Heberden's nodes in osteoarthritis?
Distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint (Bouchard's nodes are in the proximal interphalangeal [PIP] joint)
2000
What vitamin D deficiency leads to a softening of the bone causing demineralization?
Osteomalacia
2001
Podagra, tophi in the ear, and polymorphonucleocytes (PMNs) with monosodium urate crystals are associated with what pathology?
Gout
2002
With what pathology are bamboo spine on an x-ray and the haplotype HLA-B27 associated?
Ankylosis spondylitis
2003
With what pathology is deposition of calcium pyrophosphate in patients older than 50 years of age associated?
Pseudogout
2004
What childhood pathology involves anterior bowing of the tibia, epiphyseal enlargements, and costochondral widening with the endochondral bones being affected?
Rickets
2005
What is the triad of Reiter's syndrome?
1. Peripheral arthritis 2. Conjunctivitis 3. Nongonococcal urethritis
2006
What are the five chemotactic mediators?
1. LB4, 2. IL-8, 3. C5a, 4. TNF-a, 5. N-formyl-methionine
2007
What are the three opsonins?
1. C3b 2. Fc region of IgG 3. Mannose-binding protein
2008
What enzyme is lacking in the autosomal recessive type of severe combined immunodeficiency?
Adenosine deaminase
2009
What two components of the complement cascade are anaphylatoxins?
1. C3a 2. C5a (causes mast cells to secrete histamine)
2010
What causes vasodilatation, pain, and smooth muscle contraction?
Bradykinins
2011
What is the most potent vasoconstrictor and can cause platelet aggregation?
TXA2
2012
What prostaglandin is associated with vasodilatation (edema) iand nhibits platelet aggregation?
Prostaglandin I2, (PGI2)
2013
What prostaglandin is associated with vasodilatation, fever, and pain?
PGE2
2014
What are the three characteristics in Virchow's triad of thrombosis?
1. Injury to the endothelium 2. Change in laminar flow 3. Hypercoagulation
2015
What is collagen and fibrin surrounded by macrophages in rheumatic fever known as?
Aschoff bodies
2016
What leukotriene is a major chemotactic factor that causes WBCs to adhere to the endothelium?
LB4
2017
What two substances, produced by the body, cause fever?
1. Interleukin 1 (IL-1) 2. Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
2018
What three leukotrienes are associated with bronchospasms and an increase in vessel permeability and vasoconstriction?
LC4, LD4, and LE4,
2019
What substance, derived from IgE-sensitized basophils, causes increased vascular permeability, leukocyte adhesion, chemotaxis, and aggregation along with being one of the most potent platelet stimulators?
Platelet-activating factor (PAF)
2020
What is the most common organ involved in amyloidosis?
Kidney
2021
What is the term that describes when treatment for one disease leads to another disease presenting itself?
Iatrogenic infection
2022
What disease involves a failure of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches to develop, with a lack of T cell immunity causing a poor defense response to certain fungal and viral infections and tetany?
DiGeorge's syndrome
2023
What disease involves a lack of both T cell-mediated and Immoral immune responses that can be either X-linked or autosomal recessive?
Severe combined immunodeficiency
2024
What pathology involves excessive fibrosis throughout the body via increased fibro- blast activity, occurs in women more than men, and is most commonly seen in the third to the fifth decade?
Scleroderma
2025
What type of hypersensitivity involves autoimmune hemolytic anemia, erythroblastosis fetalis, Goodpasture's syndrome, parasitic killing, Graves' disease, and myasthenia gravis?
Type II hypersensitivity
2026
What type of hypersensitivity involves systemic anaphylaxis and skin and food allergies?
Type I hypersensitivity
2027
What joints in the hand are most commonly affected by rheumatoid arthritis?
Proximal interphalangeal and metacarpal phalangeal joints
2028
What disease is seen in the 20- to 40-year-old age group, is more prevalent in women than men, involves diarrhea with or without bloody stools, starts in the rectum and ascends without skipping areas, includes pseudopolyps, and has a thickness of the bowel that does not change?
Ulcerative colitis
2029
What disease arises from the adrenal medulla, displaces and crosses the midline, metastasizes early, is the most common solid tumor, and is seen in the 2- to 4-year-old age group?
Neuroblastoma
2030
In which disease do you find a decrease in the bone density and thickness of the cortex, occurring most commonly in postmenopausal women but can be induced by steroids, old age, or idiopathic causes?
Osteoporosis
2031
What is cortical hypersecretion of the adrenal gland known as?
Cushing's syndrome
2032
What does postpubertal hypersecretion of growth hormone cause?
Acromegaly
2033
What tumor is seen in the 2- to 4-year-old age group; does not cross the midline; has immature glomeruli, tubules, and stroma; and metastasizes late to the lungs?
Wilms' tumor
2034
What GI pathology is associated with the following: a positive string sign, an increase in the number of bloody stools, RLQ pain, skip lesions, terminal ileum most commonly affected, occurrence in women more than men, and an increased thickness of the bowel?
Crohn's disease
2035
What is associated with deposition of an extracellular amorphous substance in the blood vessel walls and connective tissue and green birefringence under polarized light?
Amvloidosis
2036
What disease is characterized by a mosaic pattern of bone marrow replacement; involves high-output cardiac failure; and occurs in women more than men and in people older than 40 years of age?
Paget's disease of the bone
2037
What type of hypersensitivity involves a Tb test, viral infections, graft rejections, and tumor-associated antigen?
Type IV hypersensitivity
2038
What form of hypersensitivity involves T cell-mediated cytotoxicity?
Type IV hypersensitivity
2039
What disease has the following characteristics: occurrence in women more than men; involvement of the second or third generation; positive ANAs; joint pain; skin rash in a malar distribution; diffuse proliferate GN; Libman- Sacks endocarditis; and neurologic disorders?
SLE : MD SOAP N HAIR (malar rash; discoid lesion; serologic; oligoarthritis; ANA positive; pleuritis/pericarditis; neurologic complications; hematologic [leukopenia/thrombocytopenia]; anticardiolipin antibodies; 3 & immunologic; and renal)
2040
What form of hypersensitivity includes IgG- or IgM-activating phagocytosis, complement, or antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)?
Type II hypersensitivity
2041
What X-linked recessive disease involves failure of maturation of pre-B cells with no surface immunoglobulins, leading to recurrent pyogenic infections in infants?
X-linked agammaglobulinemia
2042
What syndrome comprises small-cell carcinoma of the lung and myasthenia gravis?
Lambert-Eaton syndrome
2043
What pathologic process and pattern of involvement in the brain consist of necrosis, fibrosis, edema, and gliosis going from the center out?
Abscess of the brain on a CT scan
2044
What is the most common site of a contrecoup contusion?
Orbital surface of the frontal lobe
2045
What artery is the most common site of infarctions in the cerebral circulation?
Middle cerebral artery
2046
What is the most common cause of a cerebral infarct?
Atherosclerosis/arteriosclerosis
2047
What event involves the following precipitating factors: hypertension, diabetes, aneurysms, atherosclerosis, and occurrence in blacks more than in whites?
Intracerebral hemorrhage
2048
What artery is affected in a subarachnoid hematoma?
Middle cerebral artery
2049
What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Neonates?
Escherichia coli or group B streptococci
2050
What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Immunized children?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
2051
What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Non-immunized children?
Haemophilus influenzae
2052
What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Young adults?
Neisseria meningitidis
2053
What is the most common cause of meningitis in: The base of the brain?
Haemophilus influenzae
2054
What AR disease involves a lack of phenylalanine hydroxylase?
Phenylketonuria (PKU)
2055
What type of head trauma is characteristic of a fractured temporal or parietal bone, lucid intervals, headache, and confusion?
Epidural hematoma
2056
What disease is seen in children younger than 5 years of age; X-linked recessive, cardiac myopathies; calf pseudohypertrophy; lordosis; protuberant bellies; an increase then a decrease in CPK; and death in the second generation of life?
Duchenne's muscular dystrophy
2057
What breast pathology involves malignant cells with "halos" invading the epidermis of the skin?
Paget's disease of the breast
2058
What tumor comprises 40% of all testicular tumors in children?
Teratoma
2059
What disease has the following characteristics: has autoantibodies to IgG; occurs in women more than men; and includes exophthalmos, pretibial myxedema, nervousness, heart palpitations, and fatigue?
Graves' disease
2060
What germ cell tumor is seen in the 15- to 35-year-old age group, peaks when the person is 35 years of age, and is a bulky mass that spreads via the lymphatic system?
Seminoma
2061
What sex cell tumor causes precocious puberty, masculinization, gynecomastia in adults, and crystalloids of Reinke?
Leydig cell tumor
2062
What thyroid pathology causes dwarfism, retarded bone maturation, myxedema, mental retardation, and decreased T4 with increased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels?
Cretinism
2063
What are the following risk factors characteristic of: late menopause, early menarche, obesity, nulliparity, excessive estrogen, genetic factor p53, and brc-abl?
Breast cancer
2064
What adenocarcinoma presents with elevated levels of acid phosphatase, dihydrotestosterone, prostate-specific antigen (PSA), and bone pain?
Prostatic carcinoma
2065
What myopathy, due to autoantibodies to ACh receptors, can present with thymic abnormalities, red cell aplasia, and muscle weakness?
Myasthenia gravis
2066
What two factors of the complement cascade are deficient in the person with SLE?
C2 and C4
2067
What aspect of the complement cascade is defective if a patient constantly presents with recurrent infections with Neisseria gonorrhoeae or N. meningitidis?
Membrane attack complex-MAC (C5 to C9)
2068
What disease involves "cold" skin abscesses due to a defect in neutrophil chemotaxis and a serum IgE level higher than 2000?
Job's syndrome
2069
What X-linked recessive disease, deficient in NADPH oxidase, presents with catalase- positive infections?
Chronic granulomatous disease (30% are AR)
2070
When does fetal IgM first appear in the fetal circulation?
Third trimester (6 to 9 months)
2071
Hereditary angioneurotic edema (AD) presents with local edema in which organs?
GI, skin, respiratory tract
2072
What enzyme deficiency causes increased capillary permeability due to a release of vasoactive peptides?
C1 esterase inhibitor (C1INH)
2073
What AR disease contains the most common neutrophil defect?
Myeloperoxidase deficiency
2074
How can a deficiency in adenosine deaminase be a bone marrow suppressor?
It causes a buildup of dATP, which inhibits ribonucleotide reductase and leads to a decrease in deoxynucleoside triphosphate (a precursor of DNA), resulting in overall bone marrow suppression.
2075
What disease involves an adenosine deaminase deficiency, B and T cell deficiency, and defective IL-2 receptors?
Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
2076
What AR disease presents with B and T cell deficiencies, lymphopenia, an IgA deficiency, cerebellar problems, and spider angiomas?
Ataxia-telangiectasia
2077
What immunoglobulins are present on the surface of mature B cells?
IgM and IgD
2078
What is the only immunoglobulin found in the fetal circulation in the second trimester?
Maternal IgG
2079
How does maternal immunoglobulin cross the placenta to get into fetal circulation?
Fc receptor on the heavy chain of the immunoglobulin via active transport
2080
What disease involves a deficiency in IgM; elevated IgA; normal IgG; and recurrent pyogenic infections, especially from pneumococci; and thrombocytopenia?
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
2081
What syndrome in children involves hypofunction of the adrenal glands due to bilateral hemorrhagic infarctions, which are most commonly associated with meningococcemia?
Waterhouse- Friderichsen syndrome
2082
What thyroid carcinoma presents with psammoma bodies?
Papillary carcinoma of die thyroid
2083
In what disease do you see a large, hard, fibrous proliferation of the connective tissue of the thyroid?
Riedel's thyroiditis
2084
What thyroid pathology presents with a "cold," solitary, discrete nodule?
Adenoma of the thyroid
2085
What cell type involves Immoral immunity?
B lymphocytes
2086
What disease involves a goiter, hypothyroidism, and autoimmunity due to ag-specific suppressor T cells and occurs in women more commonly than in men?
Hashimoto's thyroiditis
2087
How is gonadal sex determined?
The gonads' histologic characteristics
2088
How is ductal sex determined?
Presence of mullerian or wolffian ducts
2089
How is phenotypic sex determined?
Appearance of external genitalia
2090
What disease presents with severe mental retardation, VSD, asymmetric face, microcephaly, and chromosome 5p deletion?
Cri du chat
2091
What is primary hyperparathyroidism most commonly due to?
Chief cell adenoma (80%)
2092
What are low levels of Ca2+ and P04 along with neuromuscular irritability signs of?
Hypoparathyroidism
2093
What pathology has the following signs: severe headache, palpitations with or without tachycardia, diaphoresis, anxiety, nervousness, and hypertensive episodes?
Pheochromocytoma
2094
What pathology has the following signs: elevated levels of Cat+, cardiac arrhythmias, bone resorption, kidney stones, and metastatic calcifications?
Primary hyperparathyroidism
2095
What adrenal pathology presents with hypotension, hyponatremia, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia along with skin pigmentation?
Addison's disease
2096
What disease, with familial mental retardation, presents with large everted ears and macroorchidism?
Fragile X syndrome
2097
What ovarian pathology involves psammoma bodies?
Serocystadenocarcinoma
2098
What cystic swelling of the chorionic villi is the most common precursor of choriocarcinoma?
Hydatidiform mole
2099
What estrogen- or progesterone-producing tumor is associated with Call-Exner bodies?
Granulosa cell tumor
2100
What ovarian pathology is associated with Turner's syndrome or malformation of the genitals and comprises 50% of all malignant germ cell tumors?
Dysgerminoma
2101
What ovarian pathology involves ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm in a histologic section and is most commonly seen in the early reproductive years?
Dermoid cyst (teratoma)
2102
What AR disease involves a deficiency in glucocerebrosidase,a huge spleen, and engorged phagocytic cells and is associated with chromosome 1?
Gaucher's disease
2103
What disease, with an abnormality in collagen type I, presents with "blue sclera"?
Osteogenesis imperfecta
2104
What small, subareolar, solitary tumor that affects the lactiferous ducts presents with bloody discharge from the nipple?
Intraductal papilloma
2105
What cell consists of a binucleate giant cell with eosinophilic inclusions?
Reed-Sternberg cells
2106
What disease involves bilateral, enlarged, pale ovaries and presents with infertility, hirsutism, obesity, secondary amenorrhea with elevated levels of LH, testosterone, and low levels of FSH?
Polycystic ovaries
2107
What benign tumor of the breast, seen in the young, is well demarcated and has a very low risk of cancer?
Fibroadenoma
2108
What breast pathology commonly occurs bilaterally in the upper outer quadrants, and includes microcalcifications, hypertrophy of the ducts, apocrine metaplasia, sclerosing adenoma, and blue-domed cysts?
Fibrocystic change of the breast
2109
What AR disease involves a deficiency in tyrosinase, poses an increased risk of developing basal cell or squamous cell carcinoma, and is associated with chromosome llp?
Albinism
2110
What is the most common fatal recessive disease in whites?
Cystic fibrosis
2111
What AR disease has a deficiency in homogentisic oxidase that causes brittle, fibrillated articular cartilage, blue-black pigmentation of collagen, and urine that turns black upon standing?
Alkaptonuria
2112
What AR disease involves a decreased amount of sphingomyelinase, massive organomegaly, zebra bodies, and foamy histiocytes microscopically and is associated with chromosome llp?
Niemann-Pick disease
2113
What disease has multiple schwannomas, cafe au lait spots on the skin, and Lisch nodules and is associated with chromosome 17q?
Neurofibromatosis I (chromosome 22q is with neurofibromatosis II and no Lisch nodules either)
2114
Name the AD disease associated with chromosome 15 in which the patient has long extremities, lax joints, pigeon chest, and posterior mural leaflet prolapse, and is prone to developing dissecting aortic aneurysm?
Marfan's syndrome
2115
What AR disease involves a defect in amino acid 508 on chromosome 7, causing a defect in Cl- transportation that leads to recurrent pulmonary infections and an increase in viscid mucoid secretions along with pancreatic insufficiencies?
Cystic fibrosis (Parents are usually the first to find out because the baby tastes salty.)
2116
What AD disease, associated with chromosome 19, involves a defect in the LDL receptors, leading to skin and tendon xanthomas?
Familial hypercholesterolemia
2117
In what syndrome does the patient have angiomatosis; renal cell carcinomas; pheochromocytomas; retinal, cerebellar, medulla, or spinal cord hemangioblastomas; and epidermal cysts?
von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
2118
What AD disease is associated with chromosome 4p; does not present until the person is in his or her 30s; and involves atrophy of the caudate nucleus, dilatation of the lateral and third ventricles, and signs of extrapyramidal lesions?
Huntington's disease
2119
What is the most common cause of death in this disease?
Suicide
2120
In utero death, caused by a complete lack of an alpha chain, is known as what?
Hydrops fetalis
2121
What AR disease involves a substitution of valine for glutamic acid at position 6 on the beta chain?
Sickle cell anemia
2122
What AD disease involves a defect in spectrin and leads to jaundice, splenomegaly, and cholecystitis?
Hereditary spherocytosis
2123
What spinal cord pathology is caused by a degeneration of the cortical spinals, leading to weakness, fasciculations, hyperreflexia, and spasticity?
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)-Lou Gehrig's disease
2124
What are the two reasons for megaloblastic anemia with elevated mean corpuscular volume (MCV)?
1. Vitamin B12 deficiency 2. Folate deficiency
2125
What are the five reasons for normochromic normocytic anemia with a normal MCV and an elevated reticulocyte count?
1. Autoimmune hypersplenism 2. Trauma 3. Anemia 4. Spherocytosis 5. Sickle cell anemia
2126
What are the four reasons for hypochromic microcytic anemia with a low MCV?
1. Sideroblastic anemias (i.e., porphyrin and heme synthesis disorders) 2. Thalassemia 3. Iron deficiency 4. Lead poisoning
2127
What are the three causes for normochromic normocytic anemia with a normal MCV and a low reticulocyte count?
1. Marrow failure 2. Cancer 3. Leukemia
2128
How is iron-deficiency anemia differentiated from the other forms of hypochromic microcytic anemia?
RDW value greater than 15 (indicative of iron-deficiency anemia)
2129
What CNS tumor is seen in persons between 40 and 50 years of age; occurs in men more than women; affects the cerebral brain stem; is GFAP-positive; has a poor prognosis; and microscopically displays pseudopalisades,increased cellularity, pleomorphism, neovascularization, and necrosis?
Glioblastoma multiforme
2130
In what CNS tumor, arising from arachnoid cells, do you see psammoma bodies?
Meningioma occurs in (women more often than in men).
2131
What CNS pathology has a protracted history of seizures, occurs in the 30- to 40-year-age range, and microscopically involves "fried egg" cells?
Oligodendroglioma
2132
In what disease do you see atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes ("walnut brain")?
Pick's disease
2133
What disease affects the basal ganglia and the substantia nigra, produces cogwheel rigidity, mask-like faces, and resting tremors; and reveals Lewy bodies microscopically?
Parkinson's disease
2134
What pathology has bilateral periventricular plaques, perivascular inflammation, and demyelination and is thought to be autoimmune or brought on by a viral infection?
Multiple sclerosis
2135
What type of vascular pathology, involving damage to the bridging veins that drain into the superior sagittal sinus, is due to blunt trauma and is seen most commonly in old people?
Subdural hematoma
2136
What pathology is associated with a bloody lumbar puncture, which is caused most commonly by a ruptured berry aneurysm that produces the worst headache that the person has ever experienced?
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
2137
What is the most common intramedullary spinal cord tumor?
Ependymoma
2138
What is the most common cause of dementia; occurs in women more than men in the 60- to 90-year-old age group; and is associated with (32 amyloid, senile plaques, and neuroflbrillary tangles?
Alzheimer's disease
2139
What common cause of hypogonadism in men involves testicular atrophy, azoospermia, gynecomastia, and Barr bodies?
Klinefelter's syndrome
2140
What is the main type of cell involved in cellular immunity?
T lymphocyte
2141
What is the syndrome associated with women of short stature with a web neck, a low posterior hairline, streaky ovaries, and preductal coarctation of the aorta?
Turner's syndrome
2142
What is the term for a person with ambiguous external genitalia who has both ovarian and testicular tissue (Note: 66% of such persons are 46 XX.)?
True hermaphrodite (due to an X,Y translocation)
2143
What type of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is X-linked recessive and is caused by a defect in copper metabolism, causing a problem with cross-linking collagen and elastin fibers?
Type IX
2144
What type of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome involves decreased activity of lysyl hydroxylase and affects collagen types I and III the most?
Type VI (AR)
2145
What type of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome involves a deficiency in procollagen- N-peptidase?
Type VII (AR)
2146
What type of person has testicular tissue with female genitalia and both the Y chromosome and testis present?
Male pseudohermaphrodite 3 & "Dude looks like a lady!"
2147
What type of person presents with male external genitalia and is 46XX owing to excess exposure to androgenic steroids during the early stage of gestation?
Female pseudohermaphrodite
2148
What syndrome has the following components: hypertension, proteinuria, hematuria, azotemia, and oliguria?
Nephritic syndrome
2149
What type of glomerular nephritis (GN) occurs most commonly in children after a pharyngeal or skin infection; is immune complex mediated; and is seen as "lumpy-bumpy" subepithelial deposits?
Postinfectious glomerular nephritis
2150
In what type of GN, seen in the 2- to 6-year-old age group, is there albuminuria and effacement of the visceral epithelial foot process with no deposits?
Minimal change disease (lipoid nephrosis)
2151
What type of GN, associated with celiac disease and dermatitis herpetiformis, has mesangial deposits of IgA, C3, properdin, IgG, and IgM?
Berger's disease (IgA nephropathy)
2152
What pathology has pulmonary and renal basement membrane involvement and crescent formation and involves type II hypersensitivity?
Goodpasture's syndrome
2153
In what AD pathology is there a derangement of the epiphyseal cartilage growth, causing a large skull and a normal-sized vertebral column?
Achondroplasia
2154
What gynecologic pathology occurs in the third and fourth decades, is the cause of 18 to 25% of all gynecologic laparoscopic procedures, and presents with chocolate cysts?
Endometriosis
2155
What form of GN is characteristically associated with crescent formation?
Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)
2156
What type of GN has C3, IgG, C1q, C4 along with subendothelial deposits?
MPGN type I (two thirds of the MPGN cases)
2157
What type of skin carcinoma occurs on sun-exposed sites, has a low level of metastasis, and involves keratin pearls?
Squamous cell carcinoma
2158
A herniation of the brain through a defect in the skull is known as what?
Fungus cerebri
2159
What type of skin pathology, located on the central face and on sun-damaged skin, is a precursor to squamous cell carcinoma?
Keratoacanthoma
2160
True or false-Hodgkin's lymphoma affects Waldeyer's ring?
False; non-Hodgkin's disease affects Waldeyer's ring and the periaortic nodes
2161
What pathology is due to increased resorption or impaired synthesis of bone, resulting in decreased bone mass, and is associated with postmenopause, inactivity, hyperthyroidism, hyperadrenocorticism, and Ca2+ deficiency?
Osteoporosis
2162
What is a circumscribed, flat, nonpalpable pigmented change up to 1 cm?
Macule (e.g., a freckle)
2163
What is a palpable, elevated solid mass up to 0.5 cm?
Papule
2164
What is the most common tumor on sun-exposed sites that rarely metastasizes but is locally aggressive and has palisade arrangements of the nuclei?
Basal cell carcinoma
2165
What is an elevated, fluid-filled cavity between skin layers up to 0.5 cm?
Vesicle (e.g., poison ivy)
2166
What is an elevated, fluid-filled cavity between the layers greater than 0.5 cm?
Bulla
2167
What melanocytic tumor has a neural filament tumor marker and vertical or radial growth?
Malignant melanoma
2168
What benign neoplasm has the total lesion above the level of the skin with a "pasted on appearance"?
Seborrheic keratosis
2169
What are the gray-black patches of verrucous hyperkeratosis, usually found in the axillary folds, that can be a sign of an underlying malignancy?
Acanthosis nigricans (It is commonly seen in obese patients.)
2170
What is it called when the posterior cerebellar mass pushes the tonsils through the foramen magnum?
Tonsillar herniation
2171
What form of lymphoma is diffuse in the lymph node, has an IgM spike, slowly evolves to chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), is seen in the old, and also has liver, spleen, and bone marrow involvement?
Small-cell lymphoma
2172
What lymphoma is a diffusely mixed, diffusely large cell that grows rapidly and consists mainly of B cells along with "null" cells?
Diffuse aggressive lymphoma
2173
What lymphoma forms 30% of childhood lymphomas, is linked to EBV, is associated with chromosome 8,14q translocation, and has a "starry sky" pattern of involvement on a histologic section?
Burldtt's lymphoma
2174
What lymphoma arises from germinal follicles and is associated with proto- oncogene bcl-2 due to translocation of chromosome 14,18?
Follicular lymphoma
2175
What variant of small lymphocytic lymphoma has a slow course and elevated levels of IgM that lead to hyperviscosity syndrome and blindness?
Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia
2176
What lymphoma is seen in male adolescents, is associated with a thymic mass, and progresses to ALL?
Lymphoblastic lymphoma {verify this}
2177
What is the term for the condition in which the brain is pushed under the falx cerebri by a one-sided mass lesion?
Subfalcial herniation
2178
What CNS tumor arises from Rathke's pouch?
Craniopharyngioma
2179
What variant of Hodgkin's lymphoma occurs least frequently, is seen in people younger than 35 years of age, is localized, has an excellent prognosis, and involves mainly lymphocytes and a few Reed-Sternberg cells?
Lymphocyte predominant
2180
What variant of Hodgkin's lymphoma is the most common type; involves women more than men; occurs in adolescence more than in old age; affects the lower cervical, supraclavicular, and mediastinal lymph nodes with broad bands of fibrous tissue and "lacunar" cells; and has a good prognosis?
Nodular sclerosis
2181
What variant of Hodgkin's lymphoma is widespread with extensive fibrosis and necrosis, occurs in older patients, involves many Reed-Sternberg cells, and has a poor prognosis?
Lymphocyte depletion
2182
What variant of Hodgkin's lymphoma can be localized or widespread and has an intermediate prognosis with lymphocytes, eosinophils, plasma cells, histiocytes, and Reed-Sternberg cells?
Mixed cellularity
2183
What AR disease involves a deficiency in hexosaminidase A and cherry red spots on the retina; is seen more commonly in Jewish people; and is associated with chromosome 15q?
Tay-Sachs disease
2184
Name the condition described by the following: Adenomas of the thyroid, parathyroid, and adrenal cortex along with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?
Multiple endocrine neoplasia, type I (MEN I)-Wermer's syndrome
2185
Pheochromocytoma, medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, and adenoma of the parathyroid?
MEN Ila-Sipple's syndrome
2186
What cranial nerve is most commonly affected in a schwannoma?
CN VIII
2187
What leukemia is associated with a chromosome 9,22 translocation; constitutes 80% of childhood leukemias; and has blasts with PAS-positive material and terminal deoxy-transferase (TdT) marker present?
Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
2188
What leukemia is seen in the 15- to 39-year-old age group, has blasts with myeloperoxidase-positive granules, tends to invade tissues, and is associated with a poor prognosis?
Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML)
2189
What leukemia is seen in the 25- to 60-year-old age group and is associated with chromosome 9,22 translocation, bcr-abl oncogene, and blast crisis?
Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
2190
What leukemia is the most indolent of all leukemias; affects persons older than 55 years of age; and is associated with trisomy 12 (Hint: 95% are B cell neoplasms.)?
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
2191
What type of GN has C3 MPGN type II deposits in irregular granular/linear foci and intramembranous deposits of unknown material?
MPGN Type II
2192
What is the term for a News benign melanocytic tumor?
Nevus
2193
Which muscarinic receptor uses a decrease in adenyl cyclase as its second messenger?
M2
2194
What drug is used to differentiate a cholinergic crisis from myasthenia gravis?
Edrophonium
2195
What drug causes a gradual loss of choline from the presynaptic nerve terminal by blocking its reuptake?
Hemicholium
2196
What is the only site in the body that uses Ml receptors?
The stomach
2197
What drug is an Ml-specific antispasmodic?
Pirenzepine
2198
What is the most potent neuromuscular junction Mocker (NMJB), and also has no cardiovascular side effects?
Doxacurium
2199
What antimuscarinic is used as an inhalant for asthma?
Ipratropium
2200
What is the antidote for organophosphate ingestion?
Atropine and 2-PAM (pralidoxime)
2201
What is the drug of choice for atropine or tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose?
Physostigmine
2202
What is the rate-limiting step for norepinephrine synthesis?
Tyrosine hydroxylase
2203
What two enzymes are blocked by disulfiram?
Aldehyde dehydrogenase and dopamine ß-hydroxylase
2204
What is the monoamine oxidase B (MAOB) inhibitor?
Selegiline
2205
What two drugs inhibit the release of neurotransmitters from storage granules?
1. Guanethidine 2. Bretylium
2206
What drug blocks intragranular uptake of norepinephrine (NE)?
Reserpine
2207
What two drugs, when mixed, can lead to malignant hyperthermia?
1. Succinylcholine 2. Halothane (Treatment is with dantrolene.)
2208
In what phase of noncompetitive depolarization does no further depolarization occur, producing a desensitized block?
Phase 2
2209
What adrenergic receptors use inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG) for their second messenger system?
a1-Receptors
2210
What a1-agonist is used to treat paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with hypotension?
Metaraminol (a1, ß1)
2211
What a1-agonist, not inactivated by catechol-O- methyl transferase (COMT), is used as a decongestant and also for treatment of paroxysmal atrial tachycardia?
Phenylephrine
2212
What ß2-agonist is used in the prophylactic treatment of asthma?
Salmeterol
2213
What two ß2-agonists cause myometrial relaxation?
1. Ritodrine 2. Terbutaline
2214
A hypertensive crisis can be caused by the addition of an MAO inhibitor and what?
Tyramine
2215
What group of drugs is known as the "antihypertensive" group?
a1-Antagonists
2216
Why?
Because they decrease total peripheral resistance (TPR) and preload with no change in heart rate or cardiac output
2217
What mixed a-antagonists are used for patients with pheochromocytoma?
Phentolamine and phenoxybenzamine
2218
What a2-antagonist is used to treat impotence and postural hypotension?
Yohimbine
2219
What drug that penetrates the blood-brain barrier is found in asthma preparations and used as a nasal decongestant?
Ephedrine
2220
What two ß2-agonists are used to produce bronchodilatation?
1. Metaproterenol 2. Albuterol
2221
What ß-blocker is also an a-blocker?
Labetalol
2222
What are the four cardioselective ß-blockers?
1. Bisoprolol 2. Atenolol 3. Metoprolol 4. Acebutolol (BAMA)
2223
What ß-blocker is also a membrane stabilizer?
Propranolol
2224
In what three areas of the body are sympathetics the predominant tone?
1. Sweat glands 2. Arterioles 3. Veins
2225
What three ß-blockers are used in the treatment of glaucoma?
1. Propranolol 2. Timolol 3. Carteolol
2226
What two ß-blockers decrease serum lipids?
1. Pindolol 2. Acebutolol
2227
In what area of the brain can an excess of dopamine lead to psychotic symptoms?
Mesocortical area
2228
What area of the brain is linked to emotion and movement?
Mesolimbic system
2229
What two drugs block dopa-decarboxylase in the periphery to decrease the conversion of L-dopa to dopamine?
1. Carbidopa 2. Benserazide
2230
What is the drug of choice for early Parkinson's disease?
Selegiline
2231
What antiviral agent is used in the treatment of drug-induced Parkinson's disease?
Amantadine
2232
What drug which causes Ca2+ independent release of dopamine is used to treat attention deficit hyperactive disorder (ADHD) and narcolepsy?
Methylphenidate
2233
What dopamine-2 (D2) agonist is used to treat neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Bromocriptine
2234
What cofactor of dopa- decarboxylase decreases the efficacy of L-dopa?
Vitamin B6
2235
What three drugs can cause gingival hyperplasia?
1. Phenytoin 2. Cyclosporine 3. Nifedipine
2236
What antiepileptic agent has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) as a side effect?
Carbamazepine
2237
What drug is used for partial seizures and Lennox-Gastaut syndrome in children?
Felbamate
2238
What is the drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia?
Carbamazepine
2239
What are the first signs of overdose from Phenobarbitals?
Nystagmus and ataxia
2240
What drug, used for partial seizures, inhibits the release of glutamate and causes rashes in 45% of patients taking it?
Lamotrigine
2241
What benzodiazepine is used to treat absent mal seizures?
Clonazepam
2242
What are the two drugs of choice for simple partial seizures?
1. Carbamazepine 2. Phenytoin
2243
What is the only neuroleptic agent that does not cause hyperprolactemia?
Clozapine
2244
What is the drug of choice for status epilepticus?
Diazepam
2245
What two neuroleptic agents are associated with tardive dyslunesia?
1. Haldol 2. Fluphenazine
2246
What neuroleptic agent causes retinal deposits, hypotension, and torsades de pointes?
Thioridazine
2247
What neuroleptic has amoxapine as a metabolite?
Loxapine
2248
What is the only neuroleptic that does not cause an increase in weight or appetite?
Molindone
2249
What TCA causes sudden cardiac death in children?
Desipramine
2250
What TCA is used to treat enuresis?
Imipramine
2251
What class of antidepressants are associated with insomnia?
Serotonin selective reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
2252
What monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) does not cause a hypertensive crisis?
Selegiline
2253
What occurs if you mix an MAOI and a sympathomimetic?
Severe hypertension, which can lead to subarachnoid hemorrhage
2254
What two TCAs are considered to be heavily sedative?
1. Amitriptyline 2. Trazodone
2255
What neuroleptic agent is also considered to be an antihistamine?
Risperidone
2256
What TCA is used to treat obsessive-compulsive disorder and is said to cause aggressive behavior?
Clomipramine
2257
What neuroleptic agent causes agranulocytosis and also has no tardive dyslcinesia as a side effect?
Clozapine
2258
What drug decreases mood swings and is used for the manic phase of a bipolar illness?
Lithium
2259
What group of drugs potentiate the activity of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)?
Benzodiazepines
2260
What benzodiazepine is used for: Anxiety/panic attacks?
Alprazolam
2261
Absence seizures and as an anticonvulsant?
Clonazepam
2262
Alcohol withdrawal and as an anticonvulsant?
Clorazepate
2263
Status epilepticus, as a preoperative medication?
Diazepam
2264
Preoperative medication?
Lorazepam
2265
What benzodiazepines are activated outside of the liver?
Oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam (OTL = "outside the liver")
2266
What benzodiazepine antagonist is used for benzodiazepine overdose?
Flumazenil
2267
What are the three signs of morphine overdose?
1. Pinpoint pupils 2. Decreased respiratory rate 3. Coma
2268
What is the neurotransmitter (NT) at the mu receptor?
ß-Endorphin
2269
What is the NT at the delta receptor?
Enkephalin
2270
What is the NT at the kappa receptor?
Dynorphin
2271
Which type of receptor antagonist is the most clinically efficacious?
Competitive antagonist
2272
Which type of antagonist acts on the same receptor as the agonist that it blocks?
Pharmacologic antagonist
2273
How are water-soluble drugs eliminated primarily?
Via the kidneys
2274
What class of pharmaceuticals are initially inactive but are then metabolized to their active products?
Prodrugs
2275
How are drugs that are excreted via the biliary system resorbed by the GI tract?
Enterohepatic cycling
2276
What body fluid preferentially breaks down esters?
Blood
2277
Which type of antagonist takes out a drug by binding to it?
Chemical antagonist
2278
Which type of antagonist directly reverses the action of a drug by working on a different receptor?
Physiologic antagonist
2279
Quantal dose-response curves indicate what two things about a drug in a patient population?
1. Margin of error 2. Relative safety
2280
When an agonist drug binds to its receptor, what type of mechanism does it activate?
Effector mechanism
2281
What are the four types of signaling mechanisms?
1. Intracellular receptors 2. Membrane receptors 3. Enzymes 4. Intracellular effectors
2282
What are the two factors that influence low oral bioavailability?
1. First-pass metabolism 2. Acid lability
2283
What do the following values stand for: EDS ?
Effective dose for 50% of drug takers (median effective dose)
2284
TD50?
Toxic dose for 50% of drug takers (median toxic dose)
2285
LD50?
Lethal dose for 50% of drug takers (median lethal dose )
2286
What is the equation for a drug's ther-a e~utic index?
LD50 divided by ED50
2287
What does the FDA regulate?
Efficacy and safety of drugs
2288
Which phases of drug testing require an investigational new drug exemption?
Phases I, II, and III
2289
How many years do preclinical animal studies last?
2 to 5 years
2290
How many phases of clinical testing are there?
Four phases
2291
Before which phase of clinical testing is a new drug application applied for?
Phase IV
2292
How many years does clinical testing last?
4 to 5 years
2293
What antineoplastic drug is a prodrug?
Flucytosine
2294
What carbapenem is resistant to penase and is a partial cell wall inhibitor?
Imipenem
2295
What monobactam is resistant to ß-lactamases of some bacteria?
Aztreonam
2296
What are the drugs used in the triple treatment of Helicobacter pylori?
Pepto-Bismol, metronidazole, and erythromycin or amoxicillin
2297
What is the commonly IV opioid used in surgery?
Fentanyl
2298
Which IV agent has the lowest incidence of postoperative emesis and has the fastest rate of recovery?
Propofol
2299
What is the major pulmonary side effect of mu-activators?
Respiratory depression
2300
Which drug causes dissociative anesthesia and is used mainly in pediatric surgery?
Ketamine
2301
Which short-acting benzodiazepine is often used for conscious sedation?
Midazolam
2302
What is the most commonly used IV opioid in cardiovascular surgery?
Morphine sulfate
2303
What toxicities are caused by the following agents: Occupational nitrous oxide exposure?
Anemia
2304
MethoxyHurane?
Nephrotoxicity
2305
Halothane?
Hepatitis, with or without necrosis
2306
What is the only local anesthetic that does not cause vasodilatation?
Cocaine (It is vasoconstrictive.)
2307
Do opioids increase or decrease uterine smooth muscle tone?
Decrease-but they increase ureter smooth muscle tone
2308
What are the two side effects of opioids to which the user will not develop tolerance?
1. Constipation 2. Miosis
2309
What two classes of drugs can cause schizoid behavior?
1. Clucocorticoids 2. Amphetamines
2310
What is another name for prolactin inhibiting factor?
Dopamine
2311
What is the mechanism behind tardive dyskenesia?
Dopamine receptor upregulation
2312
What sedative-hypnotic is used for alcohol withdrawal?
Diazepam
2313
To what is inhalational anesthesia potency proportional?
Lipid solubility
2314
What is the only commonly used inhalant that is not a halogenated hydrocarbon?
Nitrous oxide
2315
Which sedative-hypnotic is contraindicated in patients on warfarin therapy?
Chloral hydrate
2316
What is the triad associated with "serotonin crisis"?
Myoclonus, hyperthermia, and rigidity
2317
What form of antimicrobial therapy is better to treat an immunocompromised patient?
Bactericidal
2318
What drug used to treat alcoholism has a long half-life and is given orally?
Naltrexone
2319
What is the site of action for carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?
Proximal tubule
2320
What is the site where local anesthetics bind?
Inactive Na+ channels
2321
Which bactericidal agents interfere with cell wall synthesis by inhibiting transpeptidation?
Penicillins
2322
What are the three ß-lactamase inhibitors?
1. Clavulanic acid 2. Sulbactam 3. Tazobactam
2323
What sulfonamide is the drug of choice in treating: UTIs?
Sulfisoxazole
2324
Toxoplasmosis?
Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine
2325
Malaria prophylactically?
Sulfadoxine and pyrimethamine
2326
Ophthalmic infections?
Sulfacetamide
2327
Crohn's or ulcerative colitis?
Sulfasalazine
2328
What drug blocks dihydrofolate reductase?
Trimethoprim (Sulfonamides block dihydropteroate synthase.)
2329
What are the two "broad-spectrum" penicillins?
1. Ampicillin 2. Amoxicillin
2330
Which penicillin can cause interstitial nephritis?
Methicillin
2331
What form of penicillin is stable in acid environments?
Penicillin-V
2332
What form of penicillin is used in the treatment of life-threatening illnesses?
Penicillin-G (benzylpenicillin)
2333
What is the drug of choice in the treatment of Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia?
Sulfonamide/trimethoprim
2334
What are the five penicillinase-resistant penicillins?
1. Cloxacillin 2. Oxacillin 3. Nafcillin 4. Dicloxacillin 5. Methicillin (CONDM)
2335
Which antiviral agent is teratogenic?
Amantadine
2336
Which broad-spectrum antibiotic inhibits the attachment of amino acyl tRNA by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit?
Tetracycline
2337
Which tetracycline is used in the treatment of SIADH?
Demeclocycline
2338
Which tetracycline is used when there is a decrease in renal function?
Doxycycline
2339
With which two tetracyclines is phototoxicity associated?
1. Doxycycline 2. Minocycline
2340
Which drug inhibits peptidyl transferase enzyme and binds to the 50S ribosomal subunit?
Chloramphenicol
2341
What two tetracyclines have the highest plasma binding?
1. Doxycycline 2. Minocycline
2342
Renal tubular acidosis, nephrosis, and amino aciduria constitute the triad of what syndrome?
Fanconi-like syndrome
2343
What is the cephalosporin of choice for Pseudomonas infections?
Ceftazidime
2344
Which bacteriostatic drug inhibits translocation of protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit and is a narrow-spectrum antibiotic used for pulmonary infections?
Erythromycin
2345
Vestibular toxicity is associated with what tetracycline?
Minocycline
2346
Hepatotoxicity is associated with what tetracycline?
Chlortetracycline
2347
Which two cephalosporins cross the blood-brain barrier?
1. Cefuroxime 2. Cefaclor
2348
What three cephalosporins are eliminated via biliary mechanisms?
1. Cefamandole 2. Cefoperazone 3. Ceftriaxone
2349
What three cephalosporins can produce disul6ram-like reactions?
1. Cefamandole 2. Cefoperazone 3. Moxalactam
2350
What three cephalosporins inhibit vitamin K-dependent factors?
1. Cefamandole 2. Cefoperazone 3. Moxalactam
2351
What three cephalosporins have good penetration against Bacteroides fragilis?
1. Cefotetan 2. Cefoxitin 3. Ceftizoxime
2352
What cephalosporin-like drug has excellent coverage against gram-positive and gram-negative bacilli activity and is used in conjunction with the enzyme inhibitor cilastatin?
Imipenem
2353
What is the drug of choice for penicillin-resistant gonococcalinfections?
Spectinomycin
2354
Which drugs block the enzyme DNA gyrase?
Quinolones/nalidixic acid
2355
What aminoglycoside is used before surgery to sterilize the bowel?
Neomycin
2356
What aminoglycoside causes disruption of CN I?
Streptomycin
2357
Which anti-Tb drug gives orange urine, saliva, and tears?
Rifampin
2358
What is the drug of choice for amebic dysentery caused by Bacillus fragil%s?
Metronidazole
2359
Which topical agent blocks the enzyme isoprenyl phosphate?
Bacitracin
2360
What is the drug of choice for Legionella, Mycoplasma, and Campylobacter infections?
Erythromycin
2361
What drug is used to treat Tb, tularemia, and the plague?
Streptomycin
2362
What is the drug of choice for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus?
Vancomycin
2363
Which drugs bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit and interfere with the initiation complex, causing a misreading of mRNA?
Aminoglycosides
2364
What is the drug of choice for asymptomatic meningitis carriers?
Rifampin
2365
Which three aminoglycosides have vestibular toxicity?
1. Streptomycin 2. Gentamicin 3. Tobramycin
2366
What are the two most important features in the diagnosis of malaria?
1. Splenomegaly 2. Anemia (With a high index of suspicion)
2367
Which antihelmintic increases membrane permeability to Ca2+ and is the drug of choice for schistosomiasis?
Praziquantel
2368
What is the drug of choice in the treatment of the lepra reaction?
Clofazimine
2369
What is the drug of choice for taeniasis which inhibits oxidative phosphorylation in cestodes?
Niclosamide
2370
What is the drug of choice for threadworm, trichinosis, and larva migrans?
Thiabendazole
2371
What inhibitor of microtubule synthesis is the drug of choice for whipworm and pinworm?
Mebendazole
2372
Which bacteriostatic drug inhibits folic acid synthesis and a major side effect is the lepra reaction?
Dapsone
2373
What mosquito is responsible for the transmission of malaria?
Anopheles mosquito
2374
What is the drug of choice for filariasis and onchocerciasis?
Diethylcarbamazine
2375
What drug of choice for ascaris causes neuromuscular blockade of the worm?
Pyrantel pamoate
2376
What drug blocks glucose uptake, leading to decrease formation of adenosine 5' triphosphate (ATP) and resulting in immobilization of the parasite?
Albendazole
2377
What drug is an irreversible inhibitor of the Na+/K+ pump?
Omeprazole
2378
What is the drug of choice for: Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections?
Acyclovir or trifluridine
2379
What is the drug of choice for: Varicella-zoster?
Acyclovir
2380
What is the drug of choice for: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections?
Ganciclovir
2381
What is the drug of choice for: Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infections?
azidothymidine (AZT)
2382
What is the drug of choice for: Influenza and rubella infections?
Amantadine
2383
What is the drug of choice for: Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infections?
Ribavirin
2384
What is the drug of choice for: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infections?
a-Interferon
2385
What antihistamine is used in the treatment of serotonergic crisis?
Cyproheptadine
2386
What are the three nonsedating antihistamines?
1. Terfenadine 2. Astemizole 3. Loratadine
2387
Skin necrosis is caused by a deficiency in what?
Transient protein C deficiency
2388
What D2 receptor blocker is used as an antiemetic?
Chlorpromazine
2389
What prostaglandin El (PGE1) analog is used in the treatment of ulcers caused by the excessive use of NSAIDs?
Misoprostol
2390
What ß2-agonist is used as a prophylactic agent in the treatment of asthma?
Salmeterol
2391
What is the only form of insulin that can be given IV?
Regular insulin
2392
What drug, if given during pregnancy, would cause the uterus to exhibit signs of progesterone withdrawal and induce an abortion?
RU 486
2393
What two forms of insulin, if mixed together, would result in precipitation of zinc?
1. Lente insulin 2. NPH insulin or protamine zinc insulin (PZI)
2394
What blood disorder is a side effect of metformin?
Megaloblastic anemia (decreased absorption of vitamin B12 and folic acid)
2395
Which antineoplastic agents' site of inhibition is in: M phase of the cell cycle?
Vinblastine and vincristine
2396
Gl phase of the cell cycle?
L-asparaginase and mitomycin
2397
G2 phase of the cell cycle?
Bleomycin
2398
Between GI and S phases of the cell cycle?
Hydroxyurea
2399
Between S and G2 phases of the cell cycle?
Etoposide
2400
S phase of the cell cycle?
Cytarabine, methotrexate, 6-mercaptopurine, and 6-thioguanine
2401
What is the physiologic basis for the actions of birth control pills?
They block the midcycle surge of luteinizing hormone (LH)
2402
True or false: Oral sulfonylureas increase the number of insulin receptors.
False-verify this answer.
2403
What drugs combined together produce neuroleptanalgesia?
True. They also increase insulin release and decrease glucagon release.
2404
What drugs combined together produce neurolepanalgesia?
Droperidol and fentanyl
2405
What ultra-short-acting barbiturate induces hypnosis and is associated with cardiovascular and respiratory depression?
Thiopental
2406
What is the most common pain killer used during pregnancy?
Meperidine
2407
What antimicrobial agent's major side effect is: Gray baby syndrome?
Chloramphenicol
2408
What antimicrobial agent's major side effect is: CN VIII damage (vestibulotoxic)?
Aminoglycosides
2409
What antimicrobial agent's major side effect is: Teratogenicity?
Metronidazole
2410
What antimicrobial agent's major side effect is: CholestaHc hepatitis?
Erythromycin
2411
What antimicrobial agent's major side effect is: Hemolytic anemia?
Nitrofurantoin
2412
What antimicrobial agent's major side effect is: Dental staining if used in the pediatric population?
Tetracycline
2413
What antimicrobial agent's major side effect is: Altered folate metabolism?
Trimethoprim
2414
What antimicrobial agent's major side effect is: Auditory toxicity?
Vancomycin
2415
What antimicrobial agent's major side effect is: Cartilage abnormalities?
Quinolones
2416
What are the five zero-order processes?
1. Sustained release 2. IV drip 3. Phenytoin 4. Alcohol 5. Aspirin toxicity
2417
What morphine derivative is used in patients with renal failure?
Hydromorphone
2418
Which group of antihypertensive agents decreases left ventricular hypertrophy the best?
Thiazide diuretics
2419
What is the site of action of: Osmotic diuretics?
The entire tubule barring the thick ascending limb
2420
What is the site of action of: Loop diuretics?
Ascending limb
2421
What is the site of action of: Thiazide diuretics?
Early distal tubule
2422
What is the site of action of: K+-sparing diuretics?
Early collecting duct
2423
What is the site of action of: Aldosterone antagonists?
Distal convoluted tubules
2424
What is the only diuretic that works on the blood side of the nephron?
Spironolactone (binds to aldosterone receptors)
2425
What is the active metabolite of spironolactone?
Canrenone
2426
What drug is given transdermally for chronic pain but can cause chest wall rigidity if given IV?
Fentanyl
2427
What is the lipid solubility and potency of a drug if the induction and recovery from the drug were both rapid?
Low lipid solubility and potency (They are inversely proportional.)
2428
What is the drug of choice for hypertensive patients with a decreased renal function?
a-Methyldopa (Guanabenz or clonidine is also used.)
2429
What hormone is released by the atria due to an increase in blood pressure to cause an increase in glomerular filtration rate (GFR), Na+ retention, and renin-angiotensin release?
Atrial natriuretic factor
2430
What is the drug of choice in treatment for the late phaseof asthma?
Corticosteroids
2431
Which antigenic thrombolytic agent causes a decreased level of circulating fibrinogen?
Streptokinase
2432
What is the only class of diuretics to retain Cl- used in the short-term treatment of glaucoma and also in the treatment of acute mountain sickness?
Acetazolamide
2433
What diuretic is used to decrease intraocular and intracranial pressures?
Mannitol
2434
Which thrombolytic agent, activated in the presence of fibrin, is manufactured by recombinant DNA process?
Alteplase
2435
Which diuretic causes irreversible ototoxicity and GI bleeding as its main side effects?
Ethacrynic acid
2436
What IV agent is used to treat respiratory depression associated with withdrawal from alcohol usage?
Naloxone
2437
What is the best form of treatment if an elevated blood pressure is due to: Elevated heart rate?
ß-Blockers
2438
What is the best form of treatment if an elevated blood pressure is due to: Elevated force of contractions?
ß-Blockers
2439
What is the best form of treatment if an elevated blood pressure is due to: Increase in fluid volume?
Diuretics or angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
2440
What is the best form of treatment if an elevated blood pressure is due to: Increase in TPR?
Centrally acting sympatholytics, a-antagonists, or Ca2+ channel bockers
2441
Which class of diuretics blocks Na/Cl cotransport in the distal tubules?
Thiazide diuretics
2442
Why should codeine be carefully administered acetaminophen or aminosalicylic acid?
Because it has an additive effect with with these agents
2443
What muscle comprises the upper esophageal sphincter?
Cricopharyngeus
2444
True or false: chewing is essential for digestion?
False; it just increases the surface area of the food.
2445
In which region of the stomach are parietal and chief cells located?
Body or corpus
2446
What hormone, released in response to low pH, inhibits gastric emptying by decreasing antral contractions, increases constriction of the pyloric sphincter, and also increases bicarbonate secretions from the pancreas?
Secretin
2447
In which region of the stomach are G cells located?
Antrum (They secrete gastrin: G for gastrin.)
2448
How long is the transit time through the large intestine?
3 to 4 days
2449
How long is the transit time through the small intestine?
2 to 4 hours
2450
What hormone causes contractions of smooth muscle, regulates interdigestive motility, and prepares the intestine for the next meal?
Motilin
2451
What is the main function of HCl in the stomach?
Converts pepsinogen into pepsin
2452
What hormone increases the intestinal secretions of electrolytes and H2O, relaxes smooth muscle, dilates peripheral blood vessels, and inhibits gastric secretions?
Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)
2453
What gland produces 20% of salivary secretions and contributes to almost all of the amylase secretions?
Parotid gland (serous secretions)
2454
What hormone causes contractions of the gallbladder, augments the action of secretin to produce an alkaline pancreatic juice, inhibits gastric emptying, and increases constriction of the pyloric sphincter?
Cholecystoldnin (CCK)
2455
What are the four functions of saliva?
1. Provides antibacterial action 2. Lubricates 3. Begins carbohydrate digestion 4. Begins fat digestion
2456
What is composed of skeletal muscle, innervated by the pudendal nerve, and in a voluntary constant state of contraction that relaxes for defecation?
External anal sphincter
2457
What hormone is stimulated by glucose and fat in the duodenum, inhibits gastric secretions and motility, and stimulates insulin secretion?
Gastrin inhibitory peptide (GIP)
2458
Which portion of the autonomic nervous system regulates salivary flow?
Parasympathetic portion
2459
A pH of less than 4.5 stimulates the release of what hormone?
Secretin (It inhibits acid Secretion.)
2460
What is composed of smooth muscle, innervated by pelvic splanchnics and hypogastric nerves, and involuntary?
Internal anal sphincter
2461
What gland produces 70% of total salivary secretions?
Submandibular gland (produces both mucous and serous secretions)
2462
What is the tonicity of pancreatic juice?
Isotonic
2463
What organism is associated with gastric ulcers?
Helicobacter pylori
2464
What is the only gastric secretion required to sustain life?
Intrinsic factor (IF)
2465
What three structures increase the surface area of the GI tract?
1. Plicae circularis 2. Villi 3. Microvilli
2466
What hormone is the primary regulator of HCO3 secretion from the pancreas?
Secretin
2467
What cells of the GI tract secrete mucus?
Goblet cells
2468
What are the five F's associated with gallstones?
1. Fat 2. Forty 3. Female 4. Familial 5. Fertile
2469
Lactose intolerance is caused by a lack of what enzyme?
Lactase
2470
What are the three end products of amylase digestion?
1. Maltose 2. Maltotetrose 3. Alpha limit dextrans (a-1,6 binding)
2471
What percentage of bile acids are excreted daily?
5% (95% reabsorbed via enterohepatic circulation)
2472
Which glands of the upper duodenum secrete a bicarbonaterich solution?
Brunner's glands
2473
What is the major route for excretion of cholesterol?
Bile
2474
What hormone potentiates the effect of secretin?
CCK
2475
What is the major phospholipid in bile?
Lecithin
2476
What is the rate-limiting step in the formation of bile acids?
7-a-Hydroxylase
2477
What two amino acids are conjugated to bile acids to increase H2O solubility?
1. Glycine 2. Taurine
2478
What is absorbed in the gallbladder to concentrate bile?
Water
2479
If a substance is removed from circulation by an organ, is its arteriovenous (AV) difference positive or negative?
Positive AV difference
2480
In laminar flow, which area has the fastest flow?
The center of the tube
2481
What are four ways to get an increased pump function of the heart?
1. Exercise 2. Increase heart rate 3. Increase in arterial pressure 4. Increase contractility
2482
What system has an increased pressure, decreased resistance, increased flow, increased compliance, and blood volume that is proportional to flow?
Pulmonary circuit
2483
What two organs have local metabolites as the main determinant of blood flow?
1. Brain (cerebral circulation) 2. GI tract (after a meal) All other organs are under neural control.
2484
What are the three sympathetic effects on the pacemaker cells of the heart?
1. Increase the slope of prepotential 2. Take less time to reach threshold 3. Increase the rate of firing
2485
What are the three parasympathetic effects on the pacemaker cells of the heart?
1. Hyperpolarize the cells by increasing K+ conductance 2. Take longer to reach threshold 3. Decrease the rate of firing
2486
What are the two major causes of arterial pressure?
1. Contraction of the heart 2. Hydrostatic pressure
2487
What causes an increase in cardiac performance with no increase in preload?
Contractility (inotropic)
2488
Change in what intracellular ion causes a change in contractility?
Calcium
2489
What are the two main circulations with extrinsic regulation that are most affected by nervous reflexes?
1. Cutaneous circulation 2. Resting skeletal muscle
2490
What is the third heart sound caused by?
Ventricular filling (heard during diastole)
2491
What is the fourth heart sound caused by?
Atria] contraction (heard during diastole)
2492
If a substance is put into circulation by an organ, is its arteriovenous difference positive or negative?
Negative
2493
What is the baroreceptor response to an increase in blood pressure?
Increase afferent activity of CN IX and CN X to decrease heart rate (parasympathetic)
2494
What is a perfusionlimited situation?
When alveolar and capillary blood equilibrate for a substance
2495
Which region of the lungs has a low perfusion pressure and a high resistance so that there is little blood flow?
Apex
2496
What fluid is monitored directly by central chemoreceptors?
Cerebrospinal fluid (H+;CO2)
2497
On a pressure-volume loop, what is seen with: Aortic regurgitation?
Increase in stroke volume
2498
On a pressure-volume loop, what is seen with:Aortic stenosis?
Increase in afterload, decrease in stroke volume, increase in peak tension
2499
On a pressure-volume loop, what is seen with:Increased contractility?
Increase in stroke volume by decreasing the end-systolic volume
2500
On a pressure-volume loop, what is seen with:Heart failure?
Increase in end-systolic volume, decrease in afterload, decrease in peak tension, increase in peak tension
2501
What two compensatory mechanisms occur to reverse hypoxia at high altitudes?
1. Increase in erythropoietin 2. Increase in 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG)
2502
What would you give to neutralize the excess base in an alkalotic patient?
NH4Cl(strong acid can lyse RBCs)
2503
What would you give to neutralize the excess acid in an acidotic patient?
NaCO2 (CO2 eliminated by lungs)
2504
What is a diffusion-limited situation?
When alveolar gas and capillary blood attempt to equilibrate but do NOT (i.e., CO2)
2505
What must occur in order for PaCO2 to remain constant when there is an increase in the body's metabolism?
Need to increase alveolar ventilation (if not hypercapnia would result)
2506
What enzyme is needed for conversion of testosterone to estradiol?
Aromatase
2507
What two anions compete with iodine for the iodine pump in the thyroid gland?
1. Perchlorate 2. Thiocyanate
2508
What enzyme is associated with osteoblastic activity?
Alkaline phosphatase
2509
What form of plasma calcium is the physiologically active form and is regulated within narrow limits?
Free calcium (ionized)
2510
Which three factors cause the release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla?
1. Exercise 2. Emergencies (stress) 3. Exposure to cold (The three Es)
2511
What phase of the female cycle ALWAYS lasts for the same number of days (14 days in most women)?
Luteal phase
2512
What serves as a marker for 24-hour growth hormone secretion?
Plasma insulin-like growth factor type 1 (IGF-1) levels
2513
What three things inhibit the secretion of glucagon?
1. Insulin 2. Somatostatin 3. Hyperglycemia
2514
Which three organs or structures have gluconeogenic capabilities?
1. Liver 2. Kidney 3. GI epithelium
2515
Which type of diabetes is more likely to lead to ketoacidosis?
Type I (insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus [IDDM])
2516
Excess bone demineralization and remodeling can be detected by checking urine levels of what substance?
Hydroxyproline (breakdown product of collagen)
2517
What two things cause l-a-hydroxylase activity to increase?
1. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) 2. A decrease in PO4 levels
2518
What type of membrane is permeable to water and small solutes?
Selectively permeable membrane
2519
What is the movement of ions in an electrical held known as?
Conductance
2520
What two components of a body of water cannot be measured and need to be calculated?
1. Intracellular fluid (ICF) (water minus extracellular fluid) 2. Interstitial fluid (ISF) (extracellular fluid minus plasma volume)
2521
What phase of an action potential has the greatest rate of Na+ influx?
Phase 0
2522
Which phase of an action potential requires energy?
Phase 4 (via the Na+/K+ pump)
2523
What type of muscle is associated with one T tubule and two cisternae (triad)?
Skeletal muscle
2524
What is the region of an axon where no myelin is found?
Nodes of Ranvier
2525
What types) of muscle contain the thin filament troponin?
Skeletal and cardiac muscle
2526
Where are antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin produced?
The supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus
2527
What is the only hormone to INCREASE with a DECREASE in pituitary function?
Prolactin
2528
Which enzyme converts cholesterol to pregnenolone?
Desmolase-rate limiting step (RLS) in steroid hormone synthesis
2529
What are the four "stress" hormones?
1. Growth hormone (GH) 2. Glucagon 3. Cortisol 4. Epinephrine
2530
Proopiomelanocortin (POMC) is cleaved into what two substances?
1. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) 2. (alpha)-Lipotropins (melanotropins and endorphins)
2531
What are the six substances that promote the secretion of insulin?
1. Glucose 2. Amino acid (arginine) 3. Gastrin inhibitory peptide (GIP) 4. Glucagon 5. Alpha-Agonists 6. ACh
2532
What is the thin filament that has the attachment site for the crossbridges and also activates adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase)?
Actin
2533
What types of muscle have a sarcomere?
Skeletal and cardiac muscle
2534
Where is the action potential generated on a neuron?
Axon hillock
2535
What is the name for the load that the muscle is working against during stimulation?
Afterload
2536
What type of contraction has an active tension when the length is shortened?
Isotonic contraction
2537
What type of muscle has high creatinine phosphokinase (CPK), high ATPase activity, and no myoglobin; is anaerobic; and is for short-term use?
White muscle (fast)
2538
What type of muscle uses calmodulin?
Smooth muscle
2539
What thick filament has crossbridges and ATPase activity?
Myosin
2540
What causes actin-myosin crossbridge dissociation?
Binding of ATP
2541
What is used as an index of cortisol secretions?
Urine 17-OH steroids
2542
What would be the two major consequences if the zona fasciculata and the zona reticularis were removed?
1. Circulatory failure 2. Inability to mobilize energy stores
2543
How many carbons do androgens have?
Androgens are 19-carbon steroids.
2544
How many carbons do estrogens have?
Estrogens are 18-carbon steroids. (Removal of one carbon from an androgen = an estrogen.)
2545
The level of what hormone tends to DECREASE with stress?
Insulin
2546
On what two occasions are cortisol releasing hormone (CRH) secretions elevated?
1. Early morning 2. During stress
2547
What is an inhibitory interneuron known as?
Renshaw neuron
2548
What is the summation of mechanical stimuli known as?
Tetany
2549
What is the thin filament that binds to calcium?
Troponin C
2550
What determines the maximum velocity of shortening muscle?
The muscle's ATPase activity
2551
What type of muscle has end plates?
Skeletal muscle
2552
What type of contraction has an active tension, but the overall length of the con traction does not change and no work is done?
Isometric contraction
2553
What thin filament covers the attachment site in resting muscle so that the crossbridges are unavailable for binding?
Tropomyosin
2554
What is the load on a muscle in the relaxed state known as?
Preload
2555
Total tension - preload = what?
Active tension (contraction)
2556
What types of muscle are uninuclear?
Cardiac and smooth muscle
2557
In a contractile muscle, what is the source of the calcium?
Sarcoplasmic reticulum (The source is NOT extracellular.)
2558
What is the maximum force of a contraction determined by?
The number of motor units activated during the contraction
2559
What types) of muscle have T tubules associated with them?
Cardiac and skeletal muscle
2560
What type of muscle has myoglobin, low CPK, and low ATPase activity; is aerobic; and is for long-term use?
Red muscle (slow-twitch muscle)
2561
What event signifies the first day of the menstrual cycle?
The first day of bleeding
2562
What hormone is essential for induction of ovulation and formation of the corpus luteum?
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
2563
How many days before the first day of bleeding is ovulation?
14 days in most women (Remember: The luteal phase is always constant.)
2564
What is required to maintain lactation?
Suckling (stimulates oxytocin secretion)
2565
What hormone, in high levels, blocks milk production?
Estrogen
2566
What hormone is necessary for maintenance of the corpus luteum for the first 3 months of pregnancy?
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)- from the trophoblast
2567
Up to how many hours after ejaculation are sperm able to fertilize the egg?
72 hours
2568
What hormone induces myometrial contraction and causes milk letdown?
Oxytocin
2569
What hormone is necessary for the maintenance of the uterine endometrium from the fourth month of pregnancy on?
Progesterone (Estrogen is needed for progesterone to be effective.)
2570
How long after ovulation does fertilization occur?
8 to 25 hours
2571
What hormone thins cervical mucus, stimulates LH receptors on granulosa cells, elicits the LH surge, and increases proliferation of the uterine mucosal layers?
Estradiol
2572
What hormone is secreted by the placenta late in pregnancy, stimulates mammary growth during pregnancy, mobilizes energy stores from the mother so that the fetus can utilize them, and has an amino acid sequence like GH?
Human chorionic somatomanunotropin (hCS) or human placental lactogen (hPL)
2573
What hormone causes an increase in the production of milk?
Prolactin
2574
What is the force necessary to collapse the lung known as?
Lung recoil
2575
For what hormone do Leydig cells have receptors?
LH
2576
What vitamin needs thyroid hormone for conversion to its active form?
Vitamin A
2577
What is the tonicity of fluid that leaves the loop of Henle?
Hypotonic
2578
What enzyme converts androgens to estrogens?
Aromatase
2579
What does excess production of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) cause?
A goiter
2580
What type of cell reabsorbs bone?
Osteoclast; Blasts make; clasts take.
2581
What is the major form of androgen secreted from the adrenal gland?
Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)
2582
What cells of the genitourinary system produce testosterone in males?
Leydig cells
2583
What type of urine does ADH cause to be excreted?
Hypertonic urine (because of the water reabsorption in the collecting duct)
2584
What is the term for the volume of plasma removed from a substance per unit time?
Clearance
2585
What is the most potent male sex steroid?
Dihydrotestosterone - DHT
2586
What two substances stimulate Sertoli cells?
Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and testosterone At which three sites in the body is T4 converted to T3?
2587
1. Liver 2. Kidney 3. Pituitary gland (via 5'-deiodinase enzyme) The fresh air being delivered to the respiratory zone per minute is known as what?
Alveolar ventilation (the first 150 ml is not included)
2588
What region of the lungs gets very little ventilation?
Apex
2589
Where does polyuric originate if the patient is dehydrated and has electrolyte deficiencies?
Before the collecting duct (There is no electrolyte disturbance in the collecting duct.)
2590
What substance is free filtered but partially reabsorbed by passive mechanisms?
Urea
2591
What hormone promotes mobilization of energy stores, enhances the capacity of glucagon and catecholamines, and increases the capacity to withstand stress?
Cortisol
2592
What is used as an index of androgen secretion?
Urine 17-ketosteroids
2593
What are the pituitary hormones associated with: Thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH)?
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
2594
What are the pituitary hormones associated with: Cortisol releasing hormone (CRH)?
Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
2595
What are the pituitary hormones associated with: Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)?
Luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
2596
What are the pituitary hormones associated with: Growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH)?
Growth hormone (GH)
2597
What are the pituitary hormones associated with: Somatostatin?
Inhibits GH secretion
2598
What are the pituitary hormones associated with: Prolactin inhibiting factor (PIF) [dopamine]?
Inhibits prolactin secretion
2599
Which hormones are released from the: Zona glomerulosa?
Aldosterone (salt)
2600
Which hormones are released from the: Zona fasciculata?
Cortisol (sugar)
2601
Which hormones are released from the: Zona reticularis?
Androgens (sex)
2602
Which hormones are released from the: Medulla?
NE:Epi (1:4) If the zona glomerulosa were removed from the adrenal gland, what would be seen?
2603
Decrease in Na+ causing a decrease in the ECF volume, leading to a decrease in BP, and eventually to circulatory shock and death
What does subatmospheric pressure (negative) do to the lungs?
2604
It causes them to expand (because of the decrease in intrathoracic pressure) Where is the last conducting zone of the lungs?
Terminal bronchioles (No gas exchange occurs here.) Where is there summation, hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane, an increase in Cl- conductance, and local gradation?
2605
Inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)
Which extravascular chemoreceptor detects low NaCI concentrations?
2606
Macula densa
What is the major stimulus for cell division in chondroblasts?
2607
Insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) The total air in and out of the respiratory system per minute is known as what?
The total ventilation (minute volume or minute ventilation)
2608
What is the major hormone secreted by the ovarian follicle?
17 alpha-Estradiol
2609
What two conditions cause ADH to be released?
1. Low blood volume 2. Elevated plasma volume (high solute concentration)
2610
What cell converts androgens to estrogens?
Granulosa cell
2611
What hormone acts on this cell?
FSH
2612
What three lung volumes cannot be measured with a spirometer?
1. Residual volume 2. Total lung capacity 3. Functional residual capacity
2613
What two conditions decrease the secretion of aldosterone?
1. An increase in blood pressure 2. Weightlessness
2614
What cell in the female genitourinary system is stimulated by LH and is the site where androgens are produced?
Thecal cell
2615
What serves as a marker of endogenous insulin secretions?
C peptide
2616
What do you have when there is depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane owing to an influx of Na+, resulting in summation and local gradation?
Excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)
2617
What are days 15 to 28 in the female cycle known as?
Luteal phase
2618
What hormone is secreted by the Sertoli cells to decrease FSH production?
Inhibin
2619
What hormone regulates osmolarity because it controls water excretion?
ADH (It causes water reabsorption.)
2620
What is the term for the air in the system after maximal inspiration?
Total lung capacity (TLC)
2621
What is a sign of a Sertoli cell tumor in a man?
Excess estradiol in the blood
2622
What hormone is responsible for the negative feedback onto LH and FSH of the anterior pituitary and positive feedback onto the granulosa cells?
Estrogen
2623
What is the term for the total dead space of the lungs?
Physiologic dead space The surge of what hormone induces ovulation?
2624
LH
What does positive pressure do to the lungs?
2625
It collapses them.
What is the term for the air that can be taken in after normal inspiration?
2626
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
What is the first zone of the lungs that is capable of O2 exchange?
2627
Respiratory bronchioles (because they have alveoli)
What is the term for ventilation of underperfused alveoli?
2628
Alveolar dead space
What is the temperature of the scrotum?
2629
4 degrees cooler than the body How is the lower temperature of the testes maintained?
By a countercurrent heat exchanger in the spermatic cord
2630
What happens to sex steroids, LH, and FSH: If the gonads are removed?
Sex steroids decrease; LH increases; FSH increases.
2631
What happens to sex steroids, LH, and FSH: In postmenopausal women?
Sex steroids decrease; LH increases; FSH increases.
2632
What happens to sex steroids, LH, and FSH: After the administration of testosterone?
Sex steroids increase; LH decreases; nothing happens to FSH.
2633
What happens to sex steroids, LH, and FSH: After the administration of inhibin?
Nothing happens to sex steroids; nothing happens to LH; FSH decreases.
2634
What happens to sex steroids, LH, and FSH: With constant infusion of GnRH?
Sex steroids decrease; LH decreases; FSH decreases (needs to be given pulsatile).
2635
What region of the lungs is incapable of gas exchange?
Anatomic dead space
2636
What is the term for the amount of air that can never leave the lungs?
Residual volume
2637
If you increase the depth of breathing, what ventilatory parameters can be increased?
Total ventilation and alveolar ventilation
2638
If you increase the rate of breathing, what ventilatory parameters can be increased?
Total ventilation
2639
What is the term for the air left in the lungs after normal expiration?
Functional residual capacity (FRC)
2640
The lung volume from maximum inspiration to maximum expiration is known as what?
Vital capacity (VC)
2641
Where is renin produced?
In the juxtaglomerular ( JG) cells of the kidney
2642
What phase of the female cycle occurs during days 1 to 15?
Follicular phase
2643
What hormone level peaks 1 day before the surge of LH and FSH in the female cycle?
Estradiol
2644
What is the day after the LH surge in the female cycle known as?
Ovulation
2645
By what mechanism does chronic constriction keep blood flow through the penis low during non-aroused states?
Alpha-Adrenergic mediated constriction
2646
Days 1 to 7 of the female cycle are known as what?
Menses
2647
The amount of air that enters or leaves the respiratory system in a single respiratory cycle is known as what?
Tidal volume
2648
What part of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for the movement of semen through the vas deferens and related structures?
Sympathetic nervous system
2649
Which pancreatic cells secrete glucagon?
Alpha cells
2650
Which pancreatic cells secrete somatostatin?
Delta cells
2651
What term describes how easily a vessel stretches?
Compliance (pulse pressure is inversely proportional to compliance)
2652
What is the most compliant artery in the body?
Aorta
2653
What is the best way to regulate mean arterial pressure?
Via total peripheral resistance (TPR)
2654
What is the term for resistance to ventricular outflow?
Afterload
2655
What is the main determinant of resistance?
The radius of the vessel (also the viscosity and length)
2656
What is the relationship between Na+ reabsorption and O2 consumption?
An increase in Na+ causes Oz consumption to increase.
2657
What vessels have the greatest cross-sectional area?
Capillaries
2658
What is the nontitratable acid that buffers secreted H+ in the kidney buffered as?
NH4+ (ammonium). H2PO4 (dihydrogen phosphate) is the titratable acid that buffers secreted H+.
2659
What are the five ways to promote turbulent flow?
1. Increase velocity 2. Branching 3. Narrow orifice 4. Increase tube diameter 5. Decrease viscosity
2660
What part of the cardiovascular system has the lowest drop in pressure?
Right atrium
2661
What vessels are the resistance vessels and have the largest drop in pressure?
Arterioles
2662
What part of the autonomic nervous system is the main controller of blood flow when a person is at rest?
Sympathetic nervous system (alpha constricts, beta-2 dialates.
2663
What process occurs when hydrostatic pressure exceeds plasma oncotic pressure?
Filtration
2664
What vessels have the greatest blood volume?
Systemic veins of the lower extremities
2665
What vessels have the smallest total cross-sectional area?
The aorta, then the vena cava
2666
What is the only way to increase O2 delivery to the myocardium?
Increase the blood flow
2667
What happens to airway resistance during inspiration?
It decreases. Sympathetics decrease resistance; parasympathetics increase resistance.
2668
What is the main drive for ventilation?
The PCO2 of systemic circulation
2669
Where does depolarization in the heart begin?
From the apex to the base and from the endocardium to the epicardium
2670
Where is the greatest venous PO2 in resting tissue?
Renal circulation
2671
The load on the muscle in the relaxed state is known as what?
Preload (also the end-diastolic volume [EDV])
2672
What cells of the heart have the highest rate of automaticity?
Sinoatrial (SA) nodal cells
2673
What are the slowest conducting cells of the heart?
Atrioventricular (AV) nodal cells
2674
What is the main control of flow in exercising muscle?
Vasodilator metabolites
2675
During what phase of the cardiac cycle do coronary vessels receive their blood flow?
Diastole
2676
On the venous pressure curve, what do the following waves represent -a wave, -c wave, -v wave?
Atrial contraction, Ventricular contraction, Atrial filling (venous filling) Atrial contraction, Venous
2677
What causes the second heart sound?
Aortic closure
2678
Where is the second heart sound on an EKG?
At the T wave
2679
What causes the diastolic interval to decrease?
Increase in the heart rate
2680
What happens to cerebral circulation during hypoventilation?
Blood flow increases because PCO2 is increased. (The opposite occurs during hyperventilation.)
2681
What is the main factor affecting PaCO2?
Alveolar ventilation (Hyperventilation decreases PaCO2 and vice versa. Body metabolism also affects PaCO2')
2682
What are the normal values for: PaO2?
100 mmHg
2683
What are the normal values for: PaCO2?
40 mmHg
2684
What are the normal values for: PvO2?
40 mmHg
2685
What are the normal values for: PvCO2?
47 mmHg
2686
What are the two ways to increase stroke volume?
1. Increase preload (EDV) 2. Decrease end-systolic volume (ESV)
2687
What is the main factor that determines the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
Hydrostatic pressure
2688
What is the normal value for the GFR?
120 ml/min
2689
What happens to pulmonary blood flow under conditions of low alveolar PO2?
A decrease in blood flow secondary to vasoconstriction
2690
What is the normal compensatory mechanism for a state of metabolic alkalosis?
Hypoventilation (respiratory acidosis)
2691
What anion is excreted in large amounts in the urine in a patient with a compensated alkalosis?
Bicarbonate (alkaline urine)
2692
Which hormone affects the osmolarity?
ADH
2693
What are the sympathetic effects on the kidney?
A decrease in GFR and an increase in filtration fraction: FF = GFR/RPF. (There is a larger decrease in the RPF than the GFR, resulting in an increase in the filtration fraction.)
2694
What are the effects of angiotensin II on the kidney?
Constriction of the efferent arterioles
2695
What four changes occur with an increase in contractility?
1. Increased slope of action potential 2. Increased peak left ventricular pressure 3. Increased rate of relaxation 4. Decreased systolic interval
2696
What fibers of the heart have the lowest intrinsic rate of automaticity?
Purkinje fibers
2697
What causes the first heart sound, and when does it occur on an EKG?
Mitral valve closure at the QRS complex
2698
What is the main determining factor of filtration fraction?
Renal plasma flow (decreases flow; increases filtration fraction)
2699
What is the normal osmolarity of the filtrate in the renal tubule?
300 mOsm
2700
What prohibits the filtering of protein anions into the renal tubule?
The negative charge on the filtration membrane
2701
What are the fastest conducting fibers in the heart?
Purkinje fibers
2702
From which point to which point does repolarization travel in the heart?
From the base to the apex and from the epicardium to the endocardium (opposite of depolarization)
2703
What are the three characteristics of autoregulation?
1. Flow independent of BP 2. Flow proportional to local metabolism 3. Flow independent of nervous reflexes
2704
What is/are the major autoregulators of: Cerebral circulation?
Increase in PCO2
2705
What is/are the major autoregulators of: Coronary circulation?
Decrease in PO2; increase in PCO2 and adenosine
2706
What is/are the major autoregulators of: Exercising skeletal muscle?
Lactate
2707
What process occurs if the capillary oncotic pressure is greater than the hydrostatic pressure?
Reabsorption
2708
What area of the circulatory system houses the greatest blood velocity?
Aorta
2709
What two things happen to cutaneous circulation when the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated?
1. Constriction of arterioles to decrease blood flow 2. Constriction of the venous plexus to decrease the blood volume
2710
Adenosine in the kidney, decreased PO2 in the lungs, and thromboxane A2 (TXA2) have what effect in the circulation?
Vasoconstriction
2711
What is the period when higher than normal stimulation is required to induce a second action potential?
Relative refractory period
2712
During an action potential, what is the stimulus for opening the Na+ channels?
Depolarization
2713
What substance "affects" the action potential?
Na+ conductance
2714
What substance "affects" the resting membrane potential?
K+ conductance
2715
In which direction do osmotically active substances cause water to move?
Toward them
2716
What are the three tracers for total body water?
1. Urea 2. Thiourea 3. Titrated water
2717
What are the three characteristics of an action potential?
1. All or none 2. Propagated 3. No summation
2718
In what system is the second greatest blood volume found?
Pulmonary system
2719
What are the four ways to increase total peripheral resistance (TPR)?
1. Decrease the radius 2. Increase the viscosity 3. Increase the length 4. Decrease the number of parallel channels
2720
What type of system is a high resistance system with flow equal at all points and where total resistance is the SUM of the individual resistances?
Vessels connected in a series
2721
What effect on a blood vessel does each of the following have: histamine, bradykinin, prostaglandins (A2, E2, I2), nitric oxide, adenosine, an increase in K+, H+, PCO2 and a decrease in PO2?
Vasodilatory effect
2722
What are three characteristics of a subthreshold potential?
1. Graded 2. Summation 3. Not propagated
2723
What is the depolarization phase of an action potential caused by?
Na+ influx
2724
If the ventilation-perfusion ratio is less than 1, what part of the lung is involved and what physiologic process is occurring?
The base, because flow exceeds delivery of O2
2725
How do you compensate for metabolic acidosis?
Hyperventilate (respiratory alkalosis)
2726
How many liters of water are there in: Total body water?
42 L
2727
How many liters of water are there in: ICF?
28 L
2728
How many liters of water are there in: ECF?
14 L
2729
How many liters of water are there in: ISF?
10.5 L
2730
How many liters of water are there in: Plasma volume?
3.5 L
2731
What hormone affects fluid volume?
Aldosterone (Na+ content determines the volume of the plasma.)
2732
The repolarization phase of the action potential is caused by what?
K+ efflux (depolarization opens the gates)
2733
What is the name of the period in which, no matter how strong the stimulus, a second action potential cannot be generated?
Absolute refractory period
2734
What hormone is necessary to maintain normal thyroid hormone levels?
GH
2735
What region of the lung has the greatest blood flow?
The base
2736
During inspiration, which region of the lung receives the greatest level of ventilation: the apex or the base?
The base
2737
What is the function of the stretch receptors in the lungs?
To prevent overdistention of the lungs (inhibits inspiration)
2738
Where does the inherent rhythm for respiration originate?
In the medullary center of the medullary oblongata
2739
Where is the deep breathing center located?
Apneustic center in the pons
2740
What type of system is a low-resistance system in which the total resistance is always less than any individual resistance, and the reciprocal of the total resistance is the sum of the reciprocal resistances?
System connected in parallel
2741
What is happening to the renal arteriole in each of the following situations: Increased GFR, increased glomerular pressure, decreased RPF, increased FF?
Constriction of efferent arteriole
2742
What is happening to the renal arteriole in each of the following situations: Decreased GFR, increased RPF, decreased glomerular pressure, decreased FF?
Dilatation of the efferent arteriole
2743
What is happening to the renal arteriole in each of the following situations: Decreased GFR, decreased RPF, decreased glomerular pressure?
Constriction of the afferent arteriole
2744
What is happening to the renal arteriole in each of the following situations: Increased GFR, increased RPF, increased glomerular pressure?
Dilatation of the afferent arteriole
2745
Which region in the lungs gives the best ventilation - perfusion ratio?
The hilum
2746
What causes peripheral chemoreceptors to be stimulated?
A decrease in die arterial PO2, H+, and PCO2 of the normal drive for ventilation)
2747
What is secreted by the parafollicular C cells of the thyroid?
Calcitonin
2748
What is the titrated acid that the secreted H+ is buffered as?
H2PO4
2749
What type of dehydration is associated with hemorrhage, burns, vomiting, and diarrhea?
Isotonic dehydration
2750
What is the potential at which concentrations are equal and opposite to the electrical forces, and also at which there is no net flux of ions across the membrane?
Equilibrium potential (Nernst's equation)
2751
What hydration state is caused by the ingestion of salt water?
Hypertonic overhydration
2752
What is the free water clearance if the osmolarity of urine is greater than 300 mOsm?
Negative free water clearance (concentrated urine)
2753
What is the term for the process of water traveling from a low solute to a high solute concentration?
Osmosis
2754
What three factors increase simple diffusion?
1. Increased solubility 2. Increased concentration gradient 3. Decreased thickness of the membrane
2755
What type of dehydration is associated with Addison's disease?
Hypotonic dehydration
2756
When is GH released?
At night and during puberty
2757
What is protein-mediated transportation down a concentration gradient known as?
Facilitated transport
2758
What determines the level of alveolar ventilation?
Central chemoreceptors (PCO2)
2759
Which point in the lungs is involved if the ventilation - perfusion ratio is greater than 1?
Apex
2760
Why is the V-P ratio in the apex of the lung greater than 1?
Delivery exceeds the flow
2761
How is CO2 carried in the blood?
As plasma bicarbonate
2762
To what hydrated state can excess ingestion of water or syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) lead?
Hypotonic overhydration
2763
What are the four major anabolic hormones?
1. Insulin 2. Thyroid hormone 3. GH 4. Sex steroids
2764
What are the eight insulin INdependent tissues?
1. CNS 2. RBCs 3. Renal tubules 4. Testis 5. Teeth 6. ß cells 7. Liver 8. Intestinal epithelium
2765
What are the growth factors released from the liver called?
Somatomedins
2766
What state of hydration would you be in if you had edema and if you ingested an excessive amount of salt?
Isotonic overhydration
2767
What type of cell lays down bone?
Osteoblast Remember: Blasts make; clasts take.
2768
What is the only condition in which giving enriched O2 will not significantly increase PaO2?
Pulmonary shunt
2769
What is the biologically active form of thyroid hormone?
T3
2770
For how many months can you store thyroid hormone?
2 to 3 months
2771
What is the ratio of T4 to T3?
20:1
2772
What type of cell is surrounded by mineralized bone?
Osteocvte
2773
What type of dehydration is associated with excess sweating, decreased water intake, fever, alcoholism, lithium salts, excess evaporation, and diabetes insipidus?
Hypertonic dehydration
2774
During what part of the cardiac cycle do you hear: Aortic stenosis?
Systole
2775
During what part of the cardiac cycle do you hear: Mitral stenosis?
Diastole
2776
During what part of the cardiac cycle do you hear: Mitral regurgitation?
Systole (pan)
2777
During what part of the cardiac cycle do you hear: Aortic regurgitation?
Diastole
2778
What four factors affect the rate of diffusion for any process?
1. Surface area 2. Thickness of the membrane 3. Concentration gradient 4. Solubility (main factor)
2779
What does a decrease in GH in adolescence lead to?
Dwarfism
2780
What type of transportation requires ATP and is protein mediated against a concentration gradient?
Primary active transportation
2781
What does an increase in GH in adolescence lead to?
Gigantism
2782
What gas has a low driving force but high solubility?
CO2
2783
What are two causes of diffusion impairment in the lungs?
1. Decrease in surface area 2. Increase in membrane thickness (PAO2 > PaO2)
2784
What is evident in the urinalysis of a compensated acidotic patient?
Low HCO3 - excretion (acidotic)
2785
What does angiotensin II do to restore blood pressure?
It has a direct vasoconstrictive effect.
2786
When is systemic venous blood delivered to the left side of the heart without O2 exchange in the alveoli?
In a pulmonary shunt
2787
What gas has a high driving force and low solubility?
O2
2788
In what type of shunt do you see an increase in right atrial, ventricular, and pulmonary arterial PO2, along with an increase in pulmonary blood flow?
Left-to-right shunt
2789
What causes Ca+ and PO4 to be reabsorbed from the kidney and Ca+ and PO4 to be absorbed from the GI tract, and also promotes bone synthesis?
Vitamin D3
2790
What does excess secretion of GH in an adult lead to?
Acromegaly
2791
The rate at which a substance is filtered into Bowman's capsule is known as what?
Filtered load rate (GFR X plasma concentration)
2792
What part of the nephron has the greatest osmolarity?
Tip of the loop of Henle (1200 mOsm)
2793
At what region of the nephron does H+/HCO3 - exchange occur?
Distal tubule
2794
During what type of heart block do the atria and the ventricles beat independently of each other?
Third-degree heart block
2795
What is the length of systole on a pressure curve?
From the beginning of the isovolumic contraction (IVC) to the beginning of the isovolumic relaxation (IVR)
2796
From which point to which point does it appear on an EKG?
From the QRS to the T wave (S1 to S2)
2797
What are the four features of aortic stenosis?
1. Increase in afterload 2. Increase in LV pressure 3. Increase in the pressure gradient between the LV and the aorta 4. Crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur (early systolic ejection click)
2798
When is surface tension the greatest in a respiratory cycle?
At the end of inspiration
2799
What type of transportation requires ATP, can be co- or countertransport, and is a protein-mediated transport with a concentration gradient?
Secondary active transportation
2800
What lung pathology is associated with a decrease in FEV1/FVC?
COPD (obstructive)
2801
What is the most important factor in describing lung recoil?
Surface tension (also fibers of tissue)
2802
What is the free water clearance if the osmolarity of urine is less than 300 mOsm?
Positive free water clearance (dilute urine)
2803
What four characteristics are common to all protein-mediated transportation?
1. More rapid than diffusion 2. Zero-order kinetics 3. Chemical specificity 4. Competition for carriers
2804
What causes an increase in Na+ and water loss from the kidney by increasing GFR, stimulated by stress and high Na+ concentrations?
Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) released from the right atrium
2805
What growth factors are chondrogenic, working on the epiphyseal end plates of bone?
Somatomedins (insulin-like growth factor type 1[IGF-1])
2806
What causes an increase in Ca+ reabsorption from the distal tubule, a decrease in PO4 reabsorption from the kidney, and an increase in Ca+ and PO4 reabsorption from the GI tract?
Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
2807
If a patient is irritated, excited, and emotionally unstable and has overall symptoms of ß-adrenergic stimulation, would you assume that this patient is hyperthyroidic or hypothyroidic?
Hyperthyroidic
2808
What is needed for proper postnatal and perinatal mental growth and also for proper bone ossification and GH secretion?
Thyroid hormone
2809
What type of heart block is associated with slowed conduction through the AV node and PR intervals greater than 0.21 second?
First-degree heart block
2810
What two occurrences cause an increase in the force of contraction?
1. Increase in preload 2. Increase in contractility by increased intracellular Ca+
2811
What are three features of mural regurgitation?
1. Increase in v wave 2. Increase in preload 3. Increase in atrial pressure and volume
2812
What is the length of diastole on a pressure curve, and where is it on an EKG?
From the beginning of the IVR to the beginning of the IVC, and from the T wave to the QRS complex (S2 to Sl)
2813
What are the three features of aortic regurgitation?
1. Increase in preload 2. Increase in systolic pressure 3. Decrease in aortic diastolic pressure
2814
What are the three features of mitral stenosis?
1. Increase in a wave 2. Decrease in LV filling 3. Increase in atrioventricular pressure
2815
What type of heart block is characterized by: Progressive lengthening of the P-R interval until there is failure of the impulse to be transmitted?
Second-degree heart block, Wenckebach (Mobitz type I)
2816
What type of heart block is characterized by: Constant P-R interval but with an occasional failure of conduction, resulting in an atrial rate greater than the ventricular rate?
Second-degree heart block, non-Wenckebach (Mobitz type II)
2817
What are the three functions of surfactant?
1. Increased compliance 2. Decreased surface tension 3. Decreased probability of pulmonary edema formation
2818
More negative intrathoracic pressure causes what to happen to systemic venous return and what to the pulmonary vessels?
Promotes systemic venous return into the chest and increases the caliber and volume of the pulmonary vessels
2819
What four factors cause the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to shift to the right?
1. Increased PCO2 2. Decreased pH 3. Increased 2,3-BPG 4. Increased temperature
2820
What part of respiration, on a pressure volume curve, acts "like the chest wall"?
Inspiration (collapse is due to elastic recoil) "Secretion + filtration =
2821
Excretion" is the transport maximum (Tm) for what substance?
Paraaminohippurate (PAH)
2822
What has happened if the amount filtered and the amount excreted per unit time are the same?
Nothing; there has been no tubular modification.
2823
What happens to the following parameters in an obstructive versus restrictive lung problem: Lung recoil?
Decrease (obstructive); increase (restrictive)
2824
What happens to the following parameters in an obstructive versus restrictive lung problem: FRO?
Increase (obstructive); decrease (restrictive)
2825
What happens to the following parameters in an obstructive versus restrictive lung problem: TLC?
Increase (obstructive); decrease (restrictive)
2826
What happens to the following parameters in an obstructive versus restrictive lung problem: FVC?
Decrease (obstructive); decrease (restrictive)
2827
What happens to the following parameters in an obstructive versus restrictive lung problem: FEVI?
Decrease (obstructive); decrease (restrictive)
2828
What happens to the following parameters in an obstructive versus restrictive lung problem: Peak flow?
Decrease (obstructive); increase (restrictive)
2829
What happens to the following parameters in an obstructive versus restrictive lung problem: RV?
Increase (obstructive); decrease (restrictive)
2830
What hormone increases reabsorption of Na+ by the principal cells and promotes excretion of H+ and K+ by the intercalated cells of the kidney?
Aldosterone
2831
What three situations cause the rennin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis to fire?
1. A decrease in blood pressure in the afferent arteriole 2. Low Na+ levels at the macula densa 3. ß1-Sympathetic nervous system input
2832
What pathology is associated with low ACTH levels and high levels of cortisol?
Cushing's syndrome (adrenal)
2833
When do you see low urine flow, high urine osmolarity, high ECF volume, low ECF osmolarity (low Na+), high ICF volume, and low ICF osmolarity?
SIADH (water retention)
2834
What is the term for the process in which excretion is less than the filtered load?
Net positive reabsorption (glucose, Na+, urea)
2835
What has happened when everything that is filtered is reabsorbed until the carriers are saturated and the excess is excreted in the urine?
The transport maximum has been reached (Tm glucose = 375 mg/min).
2836
What four factors cause aldosterone to be released?
1. Conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II 2. Hyperkalemia 3. Hyponatremia 4. A decrease in blood volume
2837
What disease state includes buffalo hump, moon fades, hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia, hypertension, hypokalemia, osteoporosis, and thinning of the hair?
Cushing's disease
2838
What condition involves high urine flow, low urine osmolarity, low ECF volume, high ECF osmolarity, low ICF volume, and high ICF osmolarity?
Diabetes insipidus (lose water)
2839
Which condition involves elevated ACTH and cortisol levels?
Cushing's disease (pituitary tumor)
2840
Which condition involves high ACTH, low cortisol, high ADH, elevated renin levels, hypotension, and low body hair?
Addison's disease (primary adrenal insufficiency)
2841
What process has taken place in the kidney when excretion is greater than the filtered load?
Net negative secretion (PAH, creatinine)
